Periodontics Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. A key feature that differentiates Stage 3 gingivitis from stage 2 lesion is an increase in the number of:

1. Lymphocytes
2. Plasma Cells
3. Mast cells
4. Polymorphs

Answer. 2. Plasma Cells

Question 2. It is likely that cell-mediated immune reactions (delayed hypersensitivity) occur in periodontitis because subjects with periodontitis have:

1. High levels of histamine in involved gingival tissue
2. IgG antibodies reactive with plaque bacterial agents
3. T-lymphocytes sensitized to bacterial plaque antigens
4. High levels of collagenase in gingival fluids

Answer. 3. T-lymphocytes sensitized to bacterial plaque antigens

Question 3. Anchoring fibrils are composed of:

1. Type 5 and Type 7 collagen
2. Type 1 and Type 3 collagen
3. Type 4 collagen
4. Type 4 and Type 3 collagen

Answer. 1. Type 5 and Type 7 collagen

Question 4. Glucose levels in GCF are:

1. Equal to glucose level in serum
2. Zero
3. 3-4 times greater than serum levels
4. More than 10 times the serum levels

Answer. 3. 3-4 times greater than serum levels

Read And Learn More: Periodontics Question And Answers

Question 5. First organism to appear in oral cavity:

1. Streptococcus sanguinis
2. Streptococcus salivarius
3. Streptococcus mutans
4. Lactobacilli

Answer. 2. Streptococcus salivarius

Question 6. Interleukin 2 is secreted by:

1. B-lymphocytes
2. T-lymphocytes
3. Neutrophils
4. Macrophages

Answer. 2. T-lymphocytes

Question 7. Gingival sulcular epithelium:

1. Show deep rete pegs
2. Shows no rete pegs
3. Is parakeratinized
4. Is orthokeratinized

Answer. 2. Shows no rete pegs

Question 8. Which of the following four bacterial species, which is least likely to bound in plaque?

1. Actinomyces viscosus
2. Streptococcus mutans
3. Streptococcus salivarius
4. Streptococcus sanguinis

Answer. 2. Streptococcus mutans

Question 9. Majority of oral microorganisms are:

1. Strict anaerobes
2. Gram-positive bacilli
3. Spirochetes
4. Facultative anaerobes

Answer. 4. Facultative anaerobes

Question 10. All of the following are protective agent in periodontal disease except:

1. S. sanguinis
2. C. Ochracea
3. V. Parvula
4. B. Oralis

Answer. 3. V. Parvula

Question 11. Normal depth of gingival sulcus in adult does not exceed:

1. 0.5 – 1 mm
2. 2 – 3 mm
3. 1 – 2 mm
4. 1 – 3 mm

Answer. 2. 2 – 3 mm

Question 12. An isolated area in which root is denuded of bone and marginal bone is intact and is covered only by periosteum and gingiva is called:

1. Fenestration
2. Dehiscence
3. Infracrestal pocket
4. Hemiseptum defect

Answer. 1. Fenestration

Question 13. The periodontium does not include:

1. Cementum
2. Dentine
3. Periodontal ligament
4. Bone lining the socket

Answer. 2. Dentine

Question 14. Gingiva is attached to enamel by:

1. Hemidesmosomes
2. Desmosomes
3. Tight junction
4. Gap Junction

Answer. 4. Gap Junction

Question 15. Width of attached gingiva is thinnest at:

1. 1st premolar
2. Central incisor
3. Lateral incisor
4. 1st molar

Answer. 2. Central incisor

Question 16. For caries and periodontal disease common causative factor is:

1. Plaque
2. Subgingival calculus
3. Pellicle
4. Materia Alba

Answer. 1. Plaque

Question 17. Gingiva is not stippled in:

1. Infants
2. Young people
3. Old people
4. Teenagers

Answer. 1. Infants

Question 18. In periodontal disease calculus is considered as:

1. Contributing factor
2. Primary factor
3. Etiologic factor
4. Governing factor

Answer. 1. Contributing factor

Question 19. Supragingival plaque causes:

1. Gingivitis
2. Periodontitis
3. Pericoronitis
4. Aphthous ulcers

Answer. 2. Periodontitis

Question 20. Which of the following structures is keratinized?

1. Attached gingiva
2. Sulcular epithelium
3. Col
4. Junctional epithelium

Answer. 1. Attached gingiva

Question 21. PGE2-mediated bone resorption in periodontal disease is inhibited by:

1. Calcitonin
2. Estrogens
3. NSAIDs
4. Vitamin D and Calcium

Answer. 3. NSAIDs

Question 22. Decalcified freeze dried bone allograft is considered as:

1. Osteogenic
2. Osteoinductive
3. Osteoconductive
4. Osteoplastic

Answer. 2. Osteoinductive

Question 23. The cause of bone destruction in juvenile periodontits is:

1. Phagocytosis is reduced
2. Reduced neutrophilic chemotaxis
3. Decrease host resistance
4. Highly virulent microorganism

Answer. 2. Reduced neutrophilic chemotaxis

Question 24. Gingival sulcular epithelium:

1. Shows deep rete pegs
2. Shows no rete pegs
3. Is parakeratinized
4. Is orthokeratinized

Answer. 2. Shows no rete pegs

Question 25. The predominant immunoglobulin is:

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgE
4. IgG

Answer. 1. IgA

Question 26. GTR is related to:

1. Gingivoplasty
2. Frenectomy
3. Mucogingival surgery
4. Gingivectomy

Answer. 3. Mucogingival surgery

Question 27. Bioactive glass is:

1. Isograft
2. Xenograft
3. Allograft
4. Alloplast

Answer. 4. Alloplast

Question 28. The probing pressure applied by CPITN probe:

1. 10 g
2. 25 g
3. 35 g
4. None of the above

Answer. 2. 25 g

Question 29. If interdental bone is apical to interradicular bone, it is:

1. Positive architecture
2. Plateau
3. Negative architecture
4. None of the above

Answer. 3. Negative architecture

Question 30. Main aim of root planning is to remove:

1. Plaque
2. Calculus
3. Necrotic cementum
4. All of the above

Answer. 3. Necrotic cementum

Question 31. Most common extraoral cause of halitosis:

1. Indigestion
2. Chronic sinusitis
3. Alcohol intake
4. Diabetes mellitus

Answer. 2. Chronic sinusitis

Question 32. Common etiology of periodontitis is:

1. Occlusal trauma
2. Systemic factor
3. Local irritating factor
4. Hormonal defects

Answer. 3. Local irritating factor

Question 33. A white soft, sticky deposit on tooth surface is:

1. Materia alba
2. Linea alba
3. Plaque
4. Calculus

Answer. 3. Plaque

Question 34. Stippling is seen on:

1. Marginal gingiva
2. Attached gingiva
3. Interdental gingiva
4. All of the above

Answer. 2. Attached gingiva

Question 35. Pellicle formation on enamel starts with:

1. Absorption of glycoprotein from saliva
2. Focal areas of mineralization
3. Bacterial colonization
4. Absorption of endotoxin

Answer. 1. Absorption of glycoprotein from saliva

Question 36. Periodontitis is caused by:

1. Malnutrition
2. Supragingival plaque
3. Biofilm
4. Faulty tooth brushing

Answer. 3. Biofilm

Question 37. Melanin pigmentation is:

1. Physiological
2. Pathological
3. Hormonal
4. Nutritional

Answer. 1. Physiological

Question 38. Pathological deepening of gingival sulcus is:

1. Gingival pocket
2. Infrabony pocket
3. Periodontal pocket
4. Pseudo pocket

Answer. 3. Periodontal pocket

Question 39. Sharpey’s fibers are inserted into:

1. Cementum
2. Bone
3. Dentine
4. All of the above

Answer. 1. Cementum

Question 40. Mucogingival junction is present between:

1. Attached gingiva and alveolar mucosa
2. Attached gingiva and marginal gingiva
3. Attached gingiva and interdental gingiva
4. Interdental gingiva and marginal gingiva

Answer. 1. Attached gingiva and alveolar mucosa

Question 41. Furcation is measured by:

1. Naber’s probe
2. Florida probe
3. Miller’s probe
4. CPITN probe

Answer. 1. Naber’s probe

Question 42. Kirkland and orban knife are used for:

1. Curettage
2. Gingivectomy
3. Root planning
4. Scaling

Answer. 2. Gingivectomy

Question 43. Common sign of occlusal trauma is (TFO)

1. Tooth mobility
2. Fracture of cusps
3. Resorption of alveolar bone
4. Widening of periodontal ligament

Answer. 1. Tooth mobility

Question 44. Which of the following is first formed after tooth brushing:

1. Materia alba
2. Plaque
3. Pellicle
4. Calculus

Answer. 3. Pellicle

Question 45. More objective sign of gingivitis is:

1. Increase in gingival size
2. Increase in crevicular fluid
3. Increase in gingival redness
4. Bleeding on probing

Answer. 4. Bleeding on probing

Question 46. Indication of gingivectomy is:

1. Edema of gingiva
2. Infrabony pocket
3. Adequate attached gingiva
4. Pocket depth below mucogingival junction

Answer. 4. Pocket depth below mucogingival junction

Question 47. Chemicals used in root preparation are:

1. Citric acid
2. Fibronectin
3. Tetracycline
4. All the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 48. Tannic acid acts as:

1. Astringent
2. Keratolytic
3. Demulcent
4. Antiseptic

Answer. 1. Astringent

Question 49. Frenectomy is a:

1. Gingival surgery
2. Periodontal plastic surgery
3. Osseous surgery
4. All the above

Answer. 2. Periodontal plastic surgery

Question 50. Stippling is seen on:

1. Marginal gingiva
2. Attached gingiva
3. Interdental gingiva
4. None of the above

Answer. 2. Attached gingiva

Question 51. Parts of periodontium:

1. Calculus
2. Dental plaque
3. Bone grafts
4. Cementum

Answer. 4. Cementum

Question 52. Parts of gingival epithelium:

1. Connective tissue
2. Gingival fibers
3. Oral epithelium
4. Periodontal ligament

Answer. 3. Oral epithelium

Question 53. Function of saliva:

1. Antimicrobial
2. Digestion
3. Mineralization of plaque
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 54. Stages of plaque (Pick the incorrect):

1. Plaque maturation
2. Initial adhesion and attachment
3. Growth factors
4. Formation of pellicle

Answer. 3. Growth factors

Question 55. Plaque hypothesis:

1. Specific plaque hypothesis
2. Non-specific plaque hypothesis
3. Experimental
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 56. Gingival fibers:

1. Oblique fibers
2. Apical fibers
3. Horizontal fibers
4. Circular fibers

Answer. 4. Circular fibers

Question 57. Gingival epithelium cells (Pick the incorrect):

1. Keratinocytes
2. Merckel cells
3. Melanocytes
4. Fibroblasts

Answer. 4. Fibroblasts

Question 58. Stages of gingivitis:

1. Initial stages
2. Early stages
3. Established stage
4. All of these

Answer. 4. All of these

Question 59. Father of periodontics:

1. Glickman
2. Newman
3. Frichard
4. Grossman

Answer. 1. Glickman

Question 60. Drugs inducing gingival enlargement:

1. Ibuprofen
2. Paracetamol
3. Phenytoin
4. Diazepam

Answer. 3. Phenytoin

Question 61. Attached gingiva is always:

1. Stippled
2. Non-keratinized
3. Resistant to masticatory forces
4. All the above

Answer. 3. Resistant to masticatory forces

Question 62. Signs of TFO are all of the following except:

1. Mobility of teeth
2. Formation of pocket
3. Widening of periodontal ligament
4. Migration of teeth

Answer. 2. Formation of pocket

Question 63. Frenectomy is a:

1. Gingival surgery
2. Mucogingival surgery
3. Osseous surgery
4. All of the above

Answer. 2. Mucogingival surgery

Question 64. A score of 0.7-1.9 of Russell’s index indicates:

1. Simple gingivitis
2. Simple periodontitis
3. Established stage of periodontitis
4. Terminal stage of periodontitis

Answer. 1. Simple gingivitis

Question 65. Clinical signs of gingivitis appear in which stage:

1. Initial or stage 1
2. Early or stage 2
3. Established or stage 3
4. Terminal stage of periodontitis

Answer. 2. Early or stage 2

Question 66. During pocket elimination by reflecting flap, the incision which removes pocket lining:

1. Internal bevel or first incision
2. Second or crevicular incision
3. Third incision
4. All of the above

Answer. 1. Internal bevel or first incision

Question 67. Main aim to restoration of carious lesion in phase 1 therapy:

1. To restore function of tooth
2. To reduce microbial source
3. To restore form of tooth
4. All the above

Answer. 2. To reduce microbial source

Question 68. The pattern of vibration of magnetostrictive type of ultrasonic scaler is:

1. Elliptical
2. Linear
3. Back and forth
4. None

Answer. 1. Elliptical

Question 69. Which of the following ingredients of a toothpaste acts as a detergent?

1. An essential oil
2. Glycerine
3. Sodium lauryl sulphate
4. Sodium metaphosphate

Answer. 3. Sodium lauryl sulphate

Question 70. Crater in inter-dental bone is best eliminated by:

1. Gingivectomy
2. Osseous recountouring
3. Osseous regeneration
4. None of the above

Answer. 2. Osseous recountouring

Question 71. Close apposition of the gingival epithelium to the tooth surface without complete obliteration of the pocket is called as:

1. New attachment
2. Reattachment
3. Epithelial adaptation
4. Repair

Answer. 3. Epithelial adaptation

Question 72. Collagen fibers that emerge from the supra-alveolar part of the cementum and pass outward beyond the alveolar crest in an apical direction into the mucoperiosteum are called as:

1. Circular fibers
2. Dentoperiosteal fibers
3. Dentogingival fibers
4. Interpapillary fibers

Answer. 2. Dentoperiosteal fibers

Question 73. Human oral spirochetes are:

1. Gram-positive and aerobic
2. Gram-positive and strict anaerobic
3. Gram-negative and aerobic
4. Gram-negative and strict anaerobic

Answer. 4. Gram-negative and strict anaerobic

Question 74. The essential distance between most apical extension of the crown margin and the alveolar bone crest should be atleast:

1. 1 mm
2. 2 mm
3. 3 mm
4. 4 mm

Answer. 2. 2 mm

Question 75. Living cells in saliva are referred to as orogranulocytes comprise of:

1. Lymphocytes
2. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
3. Macrophages
4. All of the above

Answer. 2. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes

Question 76. Carbohydrate present in the greatest amount in the matrix of supragingival plaque is:

1. Dextran
2. Levan
3. Galactose
4. Methyl pentose

Answer. 1. Dextran

Question 77. Periodontopathic microorganisms counteract activity of defense cells by inhibiting mechanism of:

1. PMN chemotaxis
2. Phagocytosis
3. Bactericidal activity
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 78. Subclinical gingivitis represents gingival inflammation in the following stage:

1. Initial lesion
2. Early lesion
3. Established lesion
4. Advanced lesion

Answer. 1. Initial lesion

Question 79. The preponderant inflammatory cell type present in stage 3 gingivitis is:

1. Plasma cell
2. Monocyte
3. Neutrophil
4. Lymphocyte

Answer. 1. Plasma cell

Question 80. Gingival inflammation affecting the gingival margin, attached gingiva and interdental papillae is known as:

1. Marginal gingivitis
2. Papillary gingivitis
3. Generalized gingivitis
4. Diffused gingivitis

Answer. 4. Diffused gingivitis

Question 81. Cementum is thickest at:

1. Apical third
2. Coronal third
3. Furcation area
4. Middle third of root

Answer. 1. Apical third

Question 82. Gingival cleft are caused by:

1. Trauma from occlusion
2. Faulty brushing technique
3. Normal frenal pull
4. Improper brushing technique

Answer. 2. Faulty brushing technique

Question 83. Pocket depth of 5 mm is noted. There is gingival recession of 3 mm, total attachment loss is:

1. 5 mm
2. 2 mm
3. 3 mm
4. 8 mm

Answer. 4. 8 mm

Question 84. Gingivoplasty is:

1. Recontouring the gingiva in absence of pockets
2. Eliminate periodontal pocket and reshaping as a part of technique
3. Eliminate periodontal pocket
4. Correction of osseous defect

Answer. 1. Recontouring the gingiva in absence of pockets

Question 85. Predominant immunoglobulin is saliva:

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgE
4. IgG

Answer. 1. IgA

Question 86. The best indication for osseous grafts for bone regeneration procedure is:

1. One walled infrabony pockets
2. One walled suprabony pockets
3. Two walled infrabony pockets
4. Three walled infrabony pockets

Answer. 4. Three walled infrabony pockets

Question 87. The first sequential step in osseous resection technique:

1. Vertical grooving
2. Radicular blending
3. Flattening interproximal bone
4. Gradualising marginal bone

Answer. 1. Vertical grooving

Question 88. Computerized periodontal probe is known as:

1. Florida probe
2. Periotemp probe
3. Automated probe
4. DNA probe

Answer. 1. Florida probe

Question 89. Periotest is used for detecting:

1. Enzyme in GCF
2. Tooth mobility
3. Antibodies
4. Inflammatory mediators

Answer. 2. Tooth mobility

Question 90. Life saver shaped enlargement of marginal gingiva are called:

1. Stillman’s cleft
2. McCall’s festoons
3. Window peak
4. Craters

Answer. 2. McCall’s festoons

Question 91. A key feature that differentiates stage 3 gingivitis from stage 2 gingivitis is an increase in the number of:

1. Lymphocytes
2. Plasma cells
3. Mast cells
4. Polymorphs

Answer. 2. Plasma cells

Question 92. Latest group of fibers in periodontal ligament:

1. Oblique fiber
2. Inter-radicular group
3. Trans-septal group
4. Horizontal group

Answer. 1. Oblique fiber

Question 93. Alveolar bone proper is also known as:

1. Trabecular bone
2. Bundle bone
3. Cribriform bone
4. Cortical bone

Answer. 2. Bundle bone

Question 94. The only microorganism that increases significantly during pregnancy is:

1. P. gingivalis
2. Spirochetes
3. P. intermedia
4. F. nucleatum

Answer. 3. P. intermedia

Question 95. Connective tissue of gingiva is also known as:

1. Lamina densa
2. Lamina propria
3. Lamina lucida
4. Lamina dura

Answer. 2. Lamina propria

Question 96. Three wall interbony defect is:

1. Three walls missing
2. Three walls present
3. Hemi-septal defect
4. None of the above

Answer. 2. Three walls present

Question 97. Hemisection is:

1. Removal of one or more roots from a multirooted tooth leaving the majority of crown intact.
2. Spliting of a two rooted teeth in two parts
3. Removal of one or more roots from a multirooted tooth with a crown
4. None of the above

Answer. 2. Spliting of a two rooted teeth in two parts

Question 98. Splinting of several teeth together as for a fixed prosthesis is done to:

1. Distribute occlusal load
2. Facilitate plaque removal
3. For better aesthetics
4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Distribute occlusal load

Question 99. Furcation lesion is clinically detected by:

1. Curette
2. Hoe
3. Naber’s probe
4. Periosteal elevator

Answer. 3. Naber’s probe

Question 100. Which of the following materials has osteoinductive property:

1. Autogenous graft
2. Hydroxyapatite
3. Plastic materials
4. Cartilage

Answer. 2. Hydroxyapatite

Question 101. The principle fibers of PDL are composed of mainly of collagen type:

1. Type 1
2. Type 4
3. Type 3
4. Type 8

Answer. 1. Type 1

Question 102. The term given to bone adjacent to the PDL that contains a great number of Sharpey’s fibers:

1. Bundle bone
2. Periosteum
3. Interdental septum
4. Osteoid

Answer. 1. Bundle bone

Question 103. Crystals making the bulk of the inorganic portion of calculus are:

1. Hydroxyapatite and Brushite
2. Hydroxyapatite and Mg Whitlockite
3. Brushite
4. Hydroxyapatite and octacalcium phosphate

Answer. 4. Hydroxyapatite and octacalcium phosphate

Question 104. Bone cysts in the oral cavity in hyperparathyroidism is called as:

1. Brown tumors
2. Blue tumors
3. Dentigerous cysts
4. Osteosarcoma

Answer. 1. Brown tumors

Question 105. Low levels of which of the following vitamins affect the metabolism of collagen within the periodontium:

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin E
3. Vitamin D
4. Vitamin C

Answer. 4. Vitamin C

Question 106. Optimum levels of which of the following vitamin would maintain the epithelium’s barrier function to bacterial products:

1. Vitamin C
2. Vitamin D
3. Vitamin B6
4. Folic acid

Answer. 1. Vitamin C

Question 107. Terminal portions of the principle fibers that are inserted into cementum and bone:

1. Sharpey’s fibers
2. Cementicles
3. Osteocytes
4. Oxytalin fibers

Answer. 1. Sharpey’s fibers

Question 108. Periodontitis is considered as the 6th complication of:

1. CVS disease
2. Diabetes
3. Osteoarthritis
4. Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer. 2. Diabetes

Question 109. Process by which cells ingest particles of a size visible to light microscopy:

1. Chemotaxis
2. Opsonization
3. Phagocytosis
4. Necrosis

Answer. 3. Phagocytosis

Question 110. An immunoglobulin that binds a known antigen is:

1. Cytokine
2. Antibody
3. Complement
4. Receptor

Answer. 2. Antibody

Question 111. Drugs known to cause gingival enlargement includes all of the following except:

1. Nifedipine
2. Diltiazem
3. Sodium valproate
4. Carbamazepine

Answer. 2. Diltiazem

Question 112. Extraction of teeth with class III and IV furcation defects with advanced attachment loss may be indicated due to all the following criteria except:

1. Inadequate plaque control
2. Poor socioeconomic factors
3. Good long-term prognosis
4. Poor patient corporation

Answer. 3. Good long-term prognosis

Question 113. Signs of TFO are all the following except:

1. Mobility of teeth
2. Formation of pocket
3. Periodontal ligament widening
4. Tooth migration

Answer. 4. Tooth migration

Question 114. Brushing technique recommended in case of gingival recession is:

1. Bass method
2. Modified Bass method
3. Modified Stillman’s method
4. All of the above

Answer. 3. Modified Stillman’s method

Question 115. The objective of root planing is to remove:

1. Plaque
2. Necrotic cementum
3. Calculus
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 116. The procedure that may be indicated to correct abnormal diastema between maxillary central incisor is:

1. Frenectomy
2. Frenotomy
3. Both a and b
4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Frenectomy

Question 117. All the following statements of periodontal surgical techniques are true except:

1. Increases accessibility to root surface
2. Reduce/eliminate pocket depth
3. Replace soft and hard tissue to attain a harmonious topography
4. Replacement of lost tooth structure

Answer. 4. Replacement of lost tooth structure

Question 118. Probe used in case of furcation involvement is:

1. William’s periodontal probe
2. UNC probe
3. Naber’s probe
4. All of the above

Answer. 3. Naber’s probe

Question 119. Kirkland knife is used in:

1. Periodontal flap surgery
2. Gingivectomy
3. Scaling
4. None of the above

Answer. 2. Gingivectomy

Question 120. Widening of attached gingiva accomplishes all of the following objectives, except:

1. Enhances plaque removal from gingival margin
2. Improves esthetics
3. Reduces/eliminates marginal tissue recession
4. Reduces inflammation around restored tooth

Answer. 3. Reduces/eliminates marginal tissue recession

Question 121. The transition from gingivitis to periodontitis:

1. Always occur within 2 months
2. Is accompanied by severe pain
3. Occurs as a result of extension of inflammation into periodontal tissues
4. None of the above

Answer. 4. None of the above

Question 122. ANUG (NUG) does not usually lead to periodontal pocket formation because:

1. There is no destruction of periodontal structures
2. It is an acute condition
3. Lack of periodontal microorganisms
4. Necrotic changes involve junctional epithelium

Answer. 4. Necrotic changes involve junctional epithelium

Question 123. Marginal gingiva is unaffected by trauma from occlusion because:

1. It is keratinized
2. Its blood supply is sufficient to maintain it
3. It is firmly attached to underlying alveolar bone
4. All of the above

Answer. 2. Its blood supply is sufficient to maintain it

Question 124. Aggressive periodontitis is characterized by:

1. Rapid rate of progression
2. Slow rate of progression
3. Plaque and calculus
4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Rapid rate of progression

Question 125. The mucogingival line can be demarcated by:

1. Using Naber’s probe
2. Drying the gingiva
3. With Schiller’s solution
4. Fremitus test

Answer. 3. With Schiller’s solution

Question 126. In modified Widman’s flap:

1. Crevicular incision is made from the base of pocket to the bone
2. Internal bevel incision is made from base of the pocket to the bone
3. Indicated only in anterior teeth
4. Indicated only in teeth with gingival recession

Answer. 1. Crevicular incision is made from the base of pocket to the bone

Question 127. Dental calculus contains:

1. Vital microorganisms
2. Nonvital microorganisms
3. Both of the above
4. None of the above

Answer. 2. Nonvital microorganism

Question 128. The diagnosis and evaluation of periodontal pocket is best done by:

1. Radiographs
2. Using disclosing agents
3. Periodontal probing
4. Periodontal surgery

Answer. 3. Periodontal probing

Question 129. The cells responsible for bone resorption are:

1. Fibroblasts
2. Cementoblasts
3. Osteoblasts
4. Osteoclasts

Answer. 4. Osteoclasts

Question 130. Which of the following cell type contain a vasoactive amine that is released in the inflammatory process and is active in causing vascular permeability?

1. B-lymphocyte
2. T-lymphocyte
3. Mast cells
4. Plasma cells

Answer. 3. Mast cells

Question 131. Group of fibers considered as belonging to gingival due to their non-osseous attachment are:

1. Alveolar crest fibers
2. Horizontal fibers
3. Apical fibers
4. Transseptal fibers

Answer. 4. Transseptal fibers

Question 132. One of the following is related to the theories pertaining to the mechanism of tooth support:

1. Hydrodynamic theory
2. Viscoelastic system theory
3. Ecologic plaque hypothesis
4. None of the above

Answer. 2. Viscoelastic system theory

Question 133. Average width of PDL space documented is:

1. 0.002 mm
2. 0.02 mm
3. 0.2 mm
4. 2 mm

Answer. 3. 0.2 mm

Question 134. In the AAP 1999 International Workshop for Classification of Periodontal Disease, gingival disease of viral origin are classified under:

1. Dental plaque induced gingival lesions
2. Non-plaque induced gingival lesions
3. Periodontitis as manifestation of systemic disease
4. Aggressive periodontitis

Answer. 2. Non-plaque induced gingival lesions

Question 135. Mechanism of coating a pathogen with recognizable ligand to enable the phagocyte to and ingest pathogens is known as:

1. Phagocytosis
2. Chemotaxis
3. Ag-presentation
4. Opsonization

Answer. 4. Opsonization

Question 136. Stippling is absent in:

1. Adults
2. Teenagers
3. Children between the age of 5 to 12 years
4. Infants

Answer. 4. Infants

Question 137. Focal infection theory was developed in 1900 by:

1. PD Miller
2. William Hunter
3. WD Miller
4. Socransky

Answer. 2. William Hunter

Question 138. Pocket resulting due to gingival enlargement is:

1. Gingival pocket
2. Pseudo pocket
3. Relative pocket
4. All of the above

Answer. 2. Pseudo pocket

Question 139. Most common complication associated with tortuous pocket is:

1. ANUP
2. ANUG
3. Periodontal pockets
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 140. Most tolerating probing force is:

1. 0.25 N
2. 0.50 N
3. 0.75 N
4. 0.95 N

Answer. 3. 0.75 N

Question 141. The root most often retained following resection of mandibular molar is:

1. Mesial root
2. Distal root
3. All of the above
4. None of the above

Answer. 3. All of the above

Question 142. Critical zones in pocket surgery include all of the following except:

1. The soft tissue wall
2. The tooth surface wall
3. The bone
4. The attached gingiva

Answer. 2. The tooth surface wall

Question 143. Most ideal result of periodontal therapy is achieved by:

1. New attachment
2. Epithelial adaptation
3. None of the above
4. All of the above

Answer. 1. New attachment

Question 144. Bioactive glass is:

1. Isograft
2. Xenograft
3. Allograft
4. Alloplast

Answer. 4. Alloplast

Question 145. Exposure of the teeth by apical migration of gingiva is known as:

1. Supraeruption
2. Passive eruption
3. Active eruption
4. Transcription

Answer. 2. Passive eruption

Question 146. Cementum overlaps the enamel in % of cases:

1. 5 to 10%
2. 60 to 65%
3. 90 to 100%
4. 2 to 5%

Answer. 2. 60 to 65%

Question 147. The proportion of persons in the population who have the disease of interest at a given point of time is:

1. Incidence
2. Risk
3. Prevalence
4. Gingivitis

Answer. 3. Prevalence

Question 148. All of the following are included in phase I therapy except:

1. Calculus removal and root planning
2. Antimicrobial therapy
3. Minor orthodontic movement
4. Endodontic therapy

Answer. 4. Endodontic therapy

Question 149. Distance between the gingival margin and base of pocket is referred as:

1. Biologic width
2. Probing depth
3. Biological depth
4. Clinical attachment

Answer. 2. probing depth

Question 150. Periodontitis is considered to be localized, if:

1. > 30% of sites are involved
2. < 30% of sites are involved
3. > 50% of sites are involved
4. < 50% of sites are involved

Answer. 2. < 30% of sites are involved

Question 151. Periodontal abscess is also known as:

1. Periapical abscess
2. Gingival abscess
3. Lateral abscess
4. Pericoronal abscess

Answer. 3. Lateral abscess

Question 152. Which one of the following process is also referred as “healing by scar”?

1. Regeneration
2. Repair
3. New attachment
4. None of the above

Answer. 2. Repair

Question 153. Which one of the following is a putative periodontal pathogen?

1. Actinomyces naeslundii
2. Actinomyces viscosus
3. Streptococcus sanguinis
4. Porphyromonas gingivalis

Answer. 4. Porphyromonas gingivali

Question 154. Which stage of gingivitis is called as subclinical gingivitis?

1. Initial lesion
2. Early lesion
3. Established lesion
4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Initial lesion

Question 155. Gracey curette is the instrument of choice for:

1. Removal of subgingival calculus
2. Removal of soft tissue lining pocket
3. Root planing and removal of altered cementum
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 156. According to current followed classification of periodontitis (AAP – 1999), which one of the following is not a type of periodontitis?

1. Aggressive periodontitis
2. Chronic periodontitis
3. Refractory periodontitis
4. Periodontitis as a manifestation of systemic disease

Answer. 3. Refractory periodontitis

Question 157. Concentration of which one of the following drug is 2–10 times more in gingival cervice as compared to serum?

1. Metronidazole
2. Doxycycline
3. Amoxicillin
4. Ciprofloxacin

Answer. 2. Doxycycline

Question 158. Life preserver shaped enlargement of marginal gingiva is called as:

1. McCall’s Festoon
2. Gingival crater
3. Widows peak
4. Stillman’s cleft

Answer. 2. Gingival crater

Question 159. A 6-year-old boy presents with vesiculating painful ulcers with diffuse erythematous gingiva. Patient is also febrile with 102°F of temperature since 3 days and also has lymphadenopathy. The most likely diagnosis is:

1. Herpes zoster
2. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
3. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
4. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis

Answer. 3. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

Question 160. Clinical attachment level is measured from:

1. Gingival margin to base of pocket
2. CEJ to the base of pocket
3. CEJ to the gingival margin
4. CEJ to the mucogingival junction

Answer. 2. CEJ to the base of pocket

Question 161. Mulberry shaped lesion is found in:

1. Idiopathic gingival enlargement
2. Enlargement associated with systemic disease
3. Drug-induced gingival enlargement
4. None of the above

Answer. 3. Drug-induced gingival enlargement

Question 162. Largest group of periodontal fibers:

1. Horizontal group
2. Transseptal group
3. Oblique group
4. Apical group

Answer. 3. Oblique group

Question 163. Thickness of periodontal ligament at alveolar crest at age of 11 to 16 years:

1. 0.16 mm
2. 0.20 mm
3. 0.17 mm
4. 0.23 mm

Answer. 4. 0.23 mm

Question 164. Cementum resorption may be caused by:

1. Local factor
2. Systemic factor
3. Idiopathic factor
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 165. Bundle bone contains:

1. Periodontal ligaments
2. Sharpey’s fibers
3. Cementum
4. All of the above

Answer. 2. Sharpey’s fibers

Question 166. Punched out ulcers are found in:

1. HIV lesions
2. NUG
3. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
4. None of the above

Answer. 4. None of the above

Question 167. 0.5 mm probing depth of periodontal pockets, line of treatment is:

1. Gingival curettage
2. Gingivectomy
3. Flap surgery
4. All above

Answer. 3. Flap surgery

Question 168. Stippling is present with:

1. Marginal gingiva
2. Attached gingiva
3. Mucogingival junction
4. Alveolar mucosa

Answer. 2. Attached gingiva

Question 169. Citric acid used for root conditioning has pH:

1. 3
2. 2
3. 1
4. 4

Answer. 3. 1

Question 170. Pellagra is due to deficiency of:

1. Thiamine
2. Riboflavin
3. Niacin
4. Folic acid

Answer. 3. Niacin

Question 171. Principal cell of gingival epithelium is:

1. Keratinocyte
2. Giant cells
3. Fibroblast
4. All of the above

Answer. 1. Keratinocyte

Question 172. Orban’s knife is used for:

1. Gingivectomy
2. Curettage
3. Root planning
4. None

Answer. 1. Gingivectomy

Question 173. Lamina propria is another name of:

1. Gingival connective tissue
2. Alveolar bone
3. Cementum
4. All of the above

Answer. 2. Alveolar bone

Question 174. Cul–de–sac appearance is seen in:

1. Grade 1 furcation
2. Grade 2 furcation
3. Grade 3 furcation
4. Grade 4 furcation

Answer. 2. Grade 2 furcation

Question 175. Insertion angle of a curette is:

1. 45 to 90°
2. 45°
3. 0°
4. > 90°

Answer. 1. 45 to 90°

Question 176. Sulcular epithelium is:

1. Orthokeratinized
2. Parakeratinized
3. Non-keratinized
4. None

Answer. 3. Non-keratinized

Question 177. CBCT is an advancement in:

1. Culture
2. X-ray technique
3. Immunofluorescence
4. None

Answer. 2. X-ray technique

Question 178. Periodontium consists of:

1. Gingiva
2. Cementum
3. Alveolar bone
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 179. Drug causes gingival enlargement:

1. Penicillin
2. Macrolides
3. Nitroimidazole
4. Cyclosporin

Answer. 4. Cyclosporin

Question 180. Kirkland knife is used in:

1. Gingivectomy
2. Flap surgery
3. Laser surgery
4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Gingivectomy

Question 181. The color of gingiva is due to:

1. Capillaries
2. Thickness of epithelium
3. Thickness of keratinization
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 182. Cul-de-sac appearance is seen in:

1. Grade 1 furcation involvement
2. Grade 2 furcation involvement
3. Grade 3 furcation involvement
4. Grade 4 furcation involvement

Answer. 2. Grade 2 furcation involvement

Question 183. Insertion angle of a curette is:

1. 0°
2. 45°
3. 90°
4. >90°

Answer. 2. 45°

Question 184. Kirkland knife is used for:

1. Curettage
2. Gingivectomy
3. Root planning
4. Scaling

Answer. 2. Gingivectomy

Question 185. The following graft has best prognosis:

1. Autograft
2. Xenograft
3. Both a and b
4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Autograft

Question 186. Principle cells of gingival epithelium is:

1. Keratinocyte
2. Giant cells
3. Fibroblasts
4. All of the above

Answer. 1. Keratinocyte

Question 187. Drug of choice in dental infection:

1. Penicillin
2. Macrolide
3. Nitroimidazole
4. None

Answer. 1. Penicillin

Question 188. Periodontium consists of:

1. Gingiva
2. Cementum
3. Alveolar bone
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 189. Periodontitis is the 6th complication of:

1. COPD
2. Rheumatoid arthritis
3. Diabetes mellitus
4. All of the above

Answer. 3. Diabetes mellitus

Question 190. CBCT is an advancement in:

1. X-ray technique
2. Culture
3. Microbiological methods
4. Immunofluorescence method

Answer. 1. X-ray technique

Question 191. Gingival col is:

1. Orthokeratinized
2. Parakeratinized
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. Non-keratinized

Answer. 4. Non-keratinized

Question 192. Stippling is absent in:

1. Infants
2. Children
3. Adolescents
4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Infants

Question 193. The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is:

1. IgA
2. IgG
3. IgE
4. IgD

Answer. 1. IgA

Question 194. McCall Festoons are seen in which teeth:

1. Central incisors
2. Canines and premolars
3. Lateral incisors
4. Molars

Answer. 2. Canines and premolars

Question 195. Which of the following is a common osseous lesion in periodontitis:

1. Crater
2. Fenestration
3. Buttressing bone
4. Ledge

Answer. 1. Crater

Question 196. Periochip contains:

1. Metronidazole
2. Tetracycline
3. Chlorhexidine
4. Doxycycline

Answer. 3. Chlorhexidine

Question 197. Demineralized freezed dried bone allograft is considered as:

1. Osteoinductive
2. Osteoconductive
3. Osteogenic
4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Osteoinductive

Question 198. Generalized gingival recession occurs in:

1. TFO
2. Faulty tooth brushing technique
3. ANUG
4. Pericoronitis

Answer. 2. Faulty tooth brushing technique

Question 199. Which of the following is mucogingival surgery:

1. Gingivoplasty
2. Widman’s flap
3. Gingivectomy
4. Free gingival graft

Answer. 4. Free gingival graft

Question 200. Method to increase attached gingiva is:

1. Widman’s flap
2. Undisplaced flap
3. Apical flap
4. Modified Widman flap

Answer. 3. Apical flap

Question 201. The sulcular epithelium is:

1. Parakeratinized
2. Non-keratinized
3. Orthokeratinized
4. None

Answer. 2. Non-keratinized

Question 202. Vertical loss of alveolar bone is seen in:

1. Adult periodontitis
2. Juvenile periodontitis
3. Scleroderma
4. Hyperparathyroidism

Answer. 2. Juvenile periodontitis

Question 203. Metronidazole is used for:

1. Gingivitis
2. HIV
3. Periodontitis
4. ANUG

Answer. 4. ANUG

Question 204. Dental floss is used to clean:

1. Occlusal surfaces
2. Mesial and distal surfaces
3. Buccal and lingual surfaces
4. Interdental region

Answer. 4. Interdental regopm

Question 205. Gingivectomy technique may be performed for:

1. Elimination of bony pocket
2. Elimination of gingival enlargement
3. Elimination of suprabony periodontal abscess
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 206. The width of attached gingiva on the facial aspect is generally greater in:

1. Maxillary molar area
2. Mandibular molar area
3. Mandibular incisor area
4. Maxillary incisor area

Answer. 3. Mandibular incisor area

Question 207. Periochip is a commercially available local drug delivery system, containing:

1. Doxycycline
2. Chlorhexidine
3. Minocycline
4. Metronidazole

Answer. 2. Chlorhexidine

Question 208. Treatment of severe periodontitis in anterior region:

1. Curettage
2. Modified Widman flap
3. Coronally displaced flap
4. None

Answer. 4. None

Question 209. Predominant cells found in Stage III gingivitis are:

1. PMNS
2. Lymphocytes
3. PMNs and lymphocytes
4. Plasma cells

Answer. 4. Plasma cells

Question 210. Basic incision in periodontal surgery is:

1. Internal bevel incision
2. First incision
3. Reverse bevel incision
4. Crevicular incision

Answer. 1. Internal bevel incision

Question 211. Periodontal angular osseous defects are classified on the basis of:

1. Number of bony walls remaining
2. Number of bony walls lost
3. Location of epithelial attachment
4. None

Answer. 1. Number of bony walls remaining

Question 212. Major factors which determine stability of periodontal instruments are:

1. Instrument grasp and sharpness
2. Instrument grasp and finger rest
3. Instrument grasp and dry field
4. Instrument grasp and adaptation

Answer. 2. Instrument grasp and finger rest

Question 213. Mucogingival junction:

1. Recedes with age
2. Recedes with periodontitis
3. Remains stationary throughout age
4. Ascends with age

Answer. 3. Remains stationary throughout age

Question 214. Thickness of junctional epithelium at base of sulcus:

1. 1 to 5 cell thick
2. 5 to 10 cell thick
3. 10 to 29 cell thick
4. 30 to 50 cell thick

Answer. 3. 10 to 29 cell thick

Question 215. Dentogingival unit comprises of:

1. Gingival fibers only
2. Junctional epithelium and connective tissue attachment
3. Junctional epithelium and periodontal ligament
4. None

Answer. 4. None

Question 216. Following are the members of red complex, except:

1. P. gingivalis
2. T. denticola
3. P. intermedia
4. B. Forsythus

Answer. 3. P. intermedia

Question 217. Most abundant principal fiber of periodontal ligament is:

1. Alveolar crest group
2. Horizontal group fiber
3. Oblique group fiber
4. None

Answer. 3. Oblique group fiber

Question 218. Periodontal flap indicated to increase the width of attached gingiva:

1. Undisplaced flap
2. Apically displaced flap
3. Kirkland flap
4. Modified Widman flap

Answer. 2. Apically displaced flap

Question 219. Example of automated periodontal probe is:

1. Nabers probe
2. Williams probe
3. CPITN probe
4. Florida probe

Answer. 4. Florida probe

Question 220. Angle of insertion of instrument beneath the gingival margin is:

1. Between 0 to 40 degree
2. Between 40 to 90 degree
3. More than 90 degree
4. None

Answer. 1. Between 0 to 40 degree

Question 221. Which one of the following procedure increases width of keratinized gingiva:

1. Modified Widman flap
2. Undisplaced flap
3. Apically displaced flap
4. Coronally displaced flap

Answer. 3. Apically displaced flap

Question 222. In which one of the following condition there is no change in gingival fluid:

1. Chronic gingivitis
2. Pregnancy
3. Periodontal abscess
4. Trauma from occlusion

Answer. 4. Trauma from occlusion

Question 223. Loss of attachment is measured from:

1. Crest of gingiva to base of pocket
2. CEJ to base of pocket
3. CEJ to crest of gingival margin
4. None of the above

Answer. 2. CEJ to base of pocket

Question 224. In which one of the following it is most difficult to predict the prognosis:

1. Acute periodontal abscess
2. Chronic periodontitis
3. Aggressive periodontitis
4. Inflammatory gingival enlargement

Answer. 3. Aggressive periodontitis

Question 225. Which stage of gingivitis is also called as subclinical gingivitis:

1. Initial lesion
2. Early lesion
3. Advanced lesion
4. Established

Answer. 1. Initial lesion

Question 226. Radius of action of bacterial plaque or inducing bone loss is:

1. 0.1 to 0.5 mm
2. >2.5 mm
3. 2.5 to 3.5 mm
4. 1.5 to 2.5 mm

Answer. 4. 1.5 to 2.5 mm

Question 227. Which one of the following is known to have tactile perception:

1. Merkel cells
2. Langerhans cells
3. Melanocytes
4. None of the above

Answer. 1. Merkel cells

Question 228. Which one of the following smoking does not lead to:

1. Increased gingival bleeding
2. Increased periodontal destruction
3. Increased attachment loss
4. Increased subgingival temperature

Answer. 4. Increased subgingival temperature

Question 229. Which one of the following is a type of pedicle gingival autograft:

1. Laterally displaced
2. Coronally displaced
3. Semilunar coronally displaced
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 230. Which one of the following is most predictable technique of pocket reduction:

1. Reconstructive osseous surgery
2. Periodontal flaps
3. Curettage
4. Resective osseous surgery

Answer. 4. Resective osseous surgery

Question 231. Radicular blending is a…………………….procedure

1. Osteotomy procedure
2. Ostectomy procedure
3. Osteoplasty procedure
4. Both a and b

Answer. 3. Osteoplasty procedure

Question 232. Linear gingival erythema is a characteristic feature of:

1. ANUG
2. Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
3. HIV gingivitis
4. Chronic gingivitis

Answer. 3. HIV gingivitis

Question 233. The distance between junctional epithelium and alveolar bone:

1. Increases with age
2. Remains constant
3. Decreases with age
4. None

Answer. 2. Remains constant

Question 234. Pattern of bone destruction in periodontal defect is affected by:

1. Tooth mobility
2. Depth of pocket
3. Presence of pus
4. Pathway of inflammation

Answer. 2. Depth of pocket

Question 235. Which organism is increased in pregnant females:

1. P. melanogenica
2. E. corrodens
3. P. gingivalis
4. P. intermedia

Answer. 4. Intermedia

Question 236. Predominant gingival group affected by early lesion in gingiva:

1. Circular and horizontal
2. Circular and oblique
3. Circular and dentogingival
4. None

Answer. 3. Circular and dentogingival

Question 237. Glucose level in GCF is:

1. 3 to 4 times greater than serum level
2. Zero
3. Equal to serum level
4. None

Answer. 1. 3 to 4 times greater than serum level

Question 238. Commonest plunger cusp is:

1. Buccal cusp of second mandibular molar
2. Distolingual cusp of second maxillary molar
3. Lingual cusp of mandibular premolar
4. All of the above

Answer. 2. Distolingual cusp of second maxillary molar

Question 239. Trauma from occlusion affects following except:

1. Epithelial attachment
2. Cementum
3. Periodontal ligament
4. Enamel

Answer. 1. Epithelial attachment

Question 240. Bioactive glass is a:

1. Isograft
2. Alloplast
3. Allograft
4. Xenograft

Answer. 2. Alloplast

Question 241. Gracey curettes use to scale distal surface of posterior teeth are:

1. Gracey curette ½, 13/14 & 11/12
2. Gracey curette 11/12, 13/14 & 5/6
3. Gracey curette 7/8 & 9/10
4. Gracey curette 13/14 & 17/18

Answer. 4. Gracey curette 13/14 & 17/18

Question 242. 6th complication of diabetes mellitus is:

1. Retinopathy
2. Neuropathy
3. Nephropathy
4. Periodontitis

Answer. 4. Periodontitis

Question 243. All of the following are periodontal phases of treatment plan except:

1. Surgical phase
2. Maintenance phase
3. Non-surgical phase
4. Refractory phase

Answer. 4. Refractory phase

Question 244. Which of the following is a BANA (Benzoyl-argininenaphthylamide) based chair side diagnostic kit:

1. Periocheck
2. Perioscan
3. Periogard
4. Periotemp

Answer. 2. Perioscan

Question 245. The turnover rate of junctional epithelium has been estimated to be:

1. Approximately 3 days
2. Approximately 6 days
3. Approximately 10 days
4. Approximately 14 days

Answer. 2. Approximately 6 days

Question 246. Elastase is capable of degrading:

1. Elastin
2. Collagen
3. Fibronectin
4. Any of the above

Answer. 1. Elastin

Question 247. In advanced lesion of gingival inflammation we can see:

1. Loss of periodontal connective tissue attachment
2. Plasma cells contributing > 50% of all cell types
3. Alveolar bone loss
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All the above

Question 248. C-reactive protein (CRP) synthesis is controlled by:

1. IL-1
2. IL-6
3. IL-10
4. IL-13

Answer. 2. IL-6

Question 249. Actinomycetemcomitans bacteriocins are active against:

1. S. sanguis
2. S. uberis
3. A. viscosus
4. All of the above

Answer. 4. All of the above

Question 250. The ecological plaque hypothesis has been proposed by:

1. Walter Loesche
2. PD Marsh
3. Theilade
4. Socransky

Answer. 2. PD Marsh

Fill In The Blanks

Question 1. Close opposition of the gingival epithelium to the tooth surface without complete obliteration of the pocket is called as ……………

Answer. Epithelial adaptation

Question 2. The junctional epithelium replaces itself approximately every …………… Days.

Answer. 7

Question 3. The most effective and stable grasp for all periodontal instruments is ……………

Answer. Modified pen grasp

Question 4. Subclinical gingivitis represents gingival inflammation in the …………… stage

Answer. Initial

Question 5. An endotoxin which is targeted against epithelial cells is ……………

Answer. Lipooligosaccharide

Question 6. The carbohydrate present in greatest amount in the matrix of supragingival plaque is ……………

Answer. Dextran

Question 7. Punched out crater-like depressions at the crest of interdental papillae are characteristic of ……………

Answer. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG)

Question 8. Most effective mechanical interdental cleansing aid used in Type I embrasure is ……………

Answer. Dental floss

Question 9. The only scaler which is used with push stroke is……………

Answer. Chisel Scaler

Question 10. Hemorrhage which usually occurs few days after surgery is referred to as ……………

Answer. Reactionary hemorrhage

Question 11. Cementum is defined as ……………

Answer. Cementum is a calcified avascular mesenchymal tissue that forms the outer covering of anatomic root.

Question 12. Drugs causing gingival enlargement are ……………

Answer. Anti-convulsants, immunosuppressant, calcium-channel blockers

Question 13. Dental plaque is defined as ……………

Answer. “Dental plaque is defined as a soft deposit that forms the biofilm adherent to tooth surface or other hard surfaces in oral cavity including removable and fixed restorations”.

Question 14. Oral manifestations of diabetes mellitus are ……………

Answer. Following are the oral manifestations of diabetes mellitus:

• Burning mouth syndrome
• Candidiasis
• Gingivitis
• Dental caries
• Glossodynia
• Lichen planus
• Periodontitis
• Salivary dysfunction
• Taste dysfunction
• Xerostomia.

Question 15. Gingival index was given by ……………

Answer. Loe H and Silness J (1963)

Question 16. Classify periodontic-endodontic lesions ……………

Answer. Classification by Rotstein and Simon (2004)

• Endodontic
• Periodontal
• Combined diseases:

Classification based on theoretical pathways

• Primary endodontic lesions
• Primary periodontal diseases
• Combined diseases.
  • Primary endodontic disease with secondary periodontal involvement
  • Primary periodontal disease with secondary endodontic involvement
  • True combined lesions.

Question 17. Periodontic plastic surgery is defined as ……………

Answer. Periodontal plastic surgery is defined as “the surgical procedures performed to correct or eliminate anatomic, developmental or traumatic deformities of gingival or alveolar mucosa”.

Question 18. Theories of dentinal hypersensitivity are ……………

Answer. Neural theory, odontoblastic transduction theory, hydrodynamic theory, modulation theory.

Question 19. Causes of gingival recession are ……………

Answer. Following are the causes of gingival recession:

• Tooth malposition or position of tooth in arch.
• Presence of dehiscence and fenestration
• Gingival ablation from soft tissues.
• Faulty toothbrushing habit.
• Primary trauma from occlusion
• Orthodontic movement in labial direction
• Improper restorations

Question 20. Osseointegration term is defined as ……………

Answer. Osseointegration is defined as “direct structural and functional connection between ordered, living bone and the surface of a load carrying implant”.

Osseointegration is defined as “a contact established between normal and remodeled bone and an implant surface without the interposition of the non bone and connective tissue”.

Important Numerical Values

Areas of Narrow and Broad Periodontal Ligament

Various Keratin Proteins and their Important Characteristics

Various Areas Along with Presence of Histological Bone

Various Microbes in Children and Adult Plaque

Enumeration of Bacterias which Invade Host Tissue Cells Directly

• A. actinomycetemcomitans
• P. gingivalis
• F. nucleatum
• T. denticola

Enumeration of Various Primary Colonizers inDental Plaque

• Streptococcus gordonii
• Streptococcus intermedius
• Streptococcus mitis
• Streptococcus oralis
• Streptococcus sanguinis
• Actinomyces gerencserial
• Actinomyces israelii
• Actinomyces naeslundii
• Actinomyces oris
• Actinomyces odontolyticus
• Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans serotype a
• Capnocytophaga gingivalis
• Capnocytophaga ochracea
• Capnocytophaga sputigena
• Eikenella corrodens
• Veillonella parvula

Enumeration of Various Secondary Colonizers in Dental Plaque

• Campylobacter gracilis
• Campylobacter rectus
• Campylobacter showae
• Eubacterium nodatum
• Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans serotype b
• Fusobacterium nucleatum ssp nucleatum
• Fusobacterium nucleatum ssp vincentii
• Fusobacterium nucleatum ssp polymorphum
• Fusobacterium periodonticum
• Parvimonas micraPrevotella intermedia
• Prevotella loescheii
• Prevotella nigrescens
• Streptococcus constellatus
• Tannerella forsythia
• Porphyromonas gingivalis
• Treponema denticola

Various Types of MMPs (Matrix Metalloproteinases) and Their Names

Various Methods of Collecting and Measuring GCF

Enzymes of GCF

• Lysosomal enzyme is beta-glucuronidase
• Cytoplasmic enzyme is lactic acid dehydrogenase
• Collagenases secreted by PMN and fibroblasts
• Lysosomal enzyme is phospholipase

Sigmund Socransky Criteria

In this criterion, periodontal microorganisms are judged to be the potential pathogens. Following is the criteria:

• Be associated with the disease with increase in number of organisms at diseases sites.
• Be eliminated or decreased with treatment.
• Should demonstrate host response
• Should demonstrate virulence factors
• Be capable of causing disease in experimental animals

Various Stains and their Etiology

Various Vitamin Deficiencies and their Periodontal Manifestations

 

Various Metals Leading to Gingival Pigmentation

Stages of Gingivitis and their Features

Enumeration of Inflammatory Hyperplasia

• Epulis fissuratum
• Epulis granulomatosum
• Fibroma
• Hormonal tumor
• Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
• Parulis
• Peripheral giant cell granuloma
• Peripheral ossifying fibroma
• Pulp polyp
• Pyogenic granuloma

Various Grades of Gingival Enlargement

Staging of ANUG by Horning and Cohen

Staging of Oral Necrotizing Diseases by Horning and Cohen

Various Types of Pockets

Enumeration of Diseases in which Defective Neutrophil Function is Present

• Agranulocytosis
• Chèdiak-higashi syndrome
• Diabetes mellitus
• Juvenile periodontitis
• Neutropenia
• Papillon-Lèfevre syndrome

New Names of Old Terminology

Enumeration of Systemic Diseases in Which Prepubertal Periodontitis is Seen

• Blood dyscrasias, i.e. leukemia
• Chèdiak-Higashi syndrome
• Down’s syndrome
• Hypophosphatasia
• Neutropenia
• Papillon-Léfevre syndrome

Grading of Mobility of Tooth by Miller

Specific Characteristic of an Odor Which Give Clue for Disease

Various Risks in Periodontal Diseases

Summary of Various Phases of Periodontal Therapy

Markings Present of Various Probes

Various Finger Rests

Various Angles used in Instrumentation of Periodontal Instruments

Wavelengths of Sonic and Ultrasonic Instruments

Various Types of Toothbrush with Diameter of their Bristles

Various Brushing Techniques used in Various Conditions and their Pattern of Movement

Various Embrasures and their Cleaning Aids

According to ADA Specifications of Toothbrush

Various Local Drug Delivery Systems

Concept of Full Mouth Disinfection

• Full mouth debridement i.e scaling and root planning completed within 24 hour period
• Brush the tongue with 1% chlorhexidine gel for 1 min.
• Rinse mouth with 0.2% chlorhexidine solution for 2 min.
• Irrigate periodontal pockets with 1% chlorhexidine solution

Various Situations and Preferred Flap Surgeries in Them

Various Techniques and their Synonyms

Classification of Gingival Recession given by Miller

Classification of Various LASERs

Wavelengths of Various Lasers

Various Elements of Implants

Various Numerical Values Regarding Placement ofImplant in Posterior Area

Minimum Distance Required Between Implants and Indicated Structures

Minimum Mesiodistal Space Needed for Placing the Implants

Various Turnover Rates

 

Various Conditions and their Timings

Various Types of Furcations, their Featuresand Treatment

Various American Gracey Curettes

Various Langer Curettes

Various Types of Grafts

Various types of Architectures

Various types of Defects and Recommended Surgical Procedures in Them

Organoleptic Rating by the Judge for Testing Breadth Malodor

Some Information about the Lymphocytes

Chemotherapeutic Agents in Local Drug Delivery System

• Actisite – Tetracycline containing fibers
• Atridox – 10% doxycycline
• Periocline – 2% minocycline
• Periochip – a small chip consists of 2.5mg of chlorhexidine

Various Absorbable Hemostatic Agents

Various Electrodes and their Uses