Microbiology Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. Tubercle bacilli were first demonstrated by

1. Robert Koch
2. Antony Ven Leeuwenhoek
3. Edward Jenner
4. Louise Pasteur

Answer: 1. Robert Koch

Question 2. One millimeter is equal to

1. 10 micrometer
2. 100 micrometer
3. 1000 micrometer
4. 10,000 micrometer

Answer: 3.1000 micrometer

Read And Learn More: Microbiology Question And Answers

Question 3. In bacteria, flagella act as:

1. Organ of reproduction
2. Organ of locomotion
3. Organ of respiration
4. Organ of digestion

Answer: 2. Organ of locomotion

Question 4. Plasmodium is a

1. Virus
2. Protozoa
3. Bacterium
4. Mycoplasma

Answer: 2. Protozoa

Question 5. MacConkey agar is a

1. Selective medium
2. Selective and indicator medium
3. Liquid medium
4. Nutrient medium

Answer: 2. Selective and indicator medium

Question 6. Methicillin-resistant Staph. aureus is

1. Sensitive to penicillin
2. Typable with phage typing
3. Predominant hospital-resistant strain
4. Gram-negative pyogenes

Answer: 3. Predominant hospital-resistant strain

Question 7. In streptococcal infection, the common route of entry is

1. Gastrointestinal
2. Urinary
3. Upper respiratory
4. Genitourinary

Answer: 3. Upper respiratory

Question 8. Tubercle bacilli cannot survive in

1. Dust
2. Milk
3. Sunrays
4. Saliva

Answer: 3. Sunrays

Question 9. Malignant pustule is

1. Cutaneous anthrax lesion
2. Cancerous lesion
3. Benign lesion
4. Autoimmune lesion

Answer: 1. Cutaneous anthrax lesion

Question 10. Clostridium tetani are

1. Gram-negative non-sporing bacilli
2. The causative organism for Lock Jaw
3. Usually resistant to penicillin
4. Non-motile

Answer: 2. Causative organism for Lock Jaw

Question 11. All these are dir infection + except

1. AgNO3
2. Mercuric chloride
3. Brilliant green
4. Methylene blue

Answer: 3. Brilliant green

Question 12. Antibodies in the primary response to an antigen is due to

1. lgG
2. IgM
3. lgE
4. lgD and lgA

Answer: 2. IgM

Question 13. All these factors take part in innate immunity, except

1. Complement C1
2. Macrophages
3. Neutrophils
4. NK- lymphocytes

Answer: 1. Complement C1

Question 14. All these cells have phagocytic property, except

1. Macrophages
2. Neutrophils
3. Monocytes
4. Lymphocytes – CD4+

Answer: 4. Lymphocytes – CD4+

Question 15. Malignant cells are killed by

1. B-lymphocytes
2. Neutrophils
3. CD4 lymphocytes
4. NK-lymphocytes

Answer: 2. Neutrophils

Question 16. All these organisms can have superantigen effect except

1. Staphylococcus aureus
2. Staphylococcus epidermidis
3. Streptococcus pyogenes
4. HIV

Answer: 2. Staphylococcus epidermidis

Question 17. An example of an anaerobic medium is

1. Wilson and B lair medium
2. MacConkey broth
3. Robertson’s cooked meat medium
4. EMB agar

Answer: 3. Robertson’s cooked meat medium

Question 18. Hepatitis B virus is:

1. dsDNA
2. ssDNA
3. Partial dsDNA
4. Partial dsRNA

Answer: 1. dsDNA

Question 19. Antiretroviral antibodies (anti-HIV) may be about in

1. Full-blown AIDS at the terminal stage
2. AlDS-related complex (ARC)
3. Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy (PCL)
4. Acute AlDS syndrome

Answer: 4. Acute AlDS syndrome

Question 20. So-called central dogma of molecular biology is

1. DNA-DNA-RNA axis
2. DNA-RNA-Peptides axis
3. RNA-DNA-Peptides axis
4. mRNA-DNA—RNA axis

Answer: 2. DNA-RNA-Peptides axis

Question 21. Multiple antibiotic resistance is mediated by

1. Episome
2. Plasmid
3. Colplasmid
4. Both b and c

Answer: 2. Plasmid

Question 22. Endotoxins are

1. Glycoprotein
2. Lipoprotein
3. Lipopolysaccharides
4. Nucleoproteins

Answer: 3. Lipopolysaccharides

Question 23. A viable count of bacteria is best arrived at by

1. Direct microscopy
2. Electron microscopy
3. Colter-counter device
4. Dilution and plating method

Answer: 1. Direct microscopy

Question 24. For Staphylococcus saprophyticus, virulence and pathogenicity is due to

1. Coagulase enzyme
2. Urease
3. Exotoxin A to E
4. Exopolysaccharides

Answer: 2. Urease

Question 25. The following all are true for diphtheriae, except

1. Bacteria spread through the blood
2. Gram variable
3. Pleomorphic on microscope
4. Produce exotoxin

Answer: 2. Gram variable

Question 26. the AMP test is positive in

1. Streptococcus Gr. A
2. Streptococcus Gr. B
3. Streptococcus Gr. C
4. Streptococcus Gr. D

Answer: 2. Streptococcus Gr. B

Question 27. Cerebral malaria is caused by

1. Plasmodium vivax
2. P. ovale
3. P. falciparum
4. P. malaria

Answer: 3. P. falciparum

Question 28. All are true for Clostridium tetanus, except

1. Pathogenicity due to exotoxins
2. Produce relatively heat-resistant spores
3. They grow on cooked meat broth
4. Antibiotics destroy toxin in tetanus

Answer: 2. Produce relatively heat-resistant spores

Question 29. All are true for episomes, except

1. They are bacteriophage
2. Carry drug-resistant gene
3. Transfer from one to other bacteria by transduction
4. Transfer from one to other bacteria by conjugation

Answer: 3. Transfer from one to other bacteria by transduction

Question 30. All of these are dimorphic fungal species, except

1. Candida
2. Histoplasma
3. Coccidiodies imitis
4. Cryptococcus neoformans

Answer: 4. Cryptococcus neoformans

Question 31. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

1. Amplifies DNA
2. Utilizes polymerase
3. Detects viruses like Hepatitis B
4. Does all of the above

Answer: 4. Does all of the above

Question 32. In microbiology, filters are used for sterilization of

1. Glasswares
2. Disposable gloves
3. Serum
4. Bacteriological media

Answer: 3. Serum

Question 33. Widal test is done for diagnosis of

1. Cholera
2. Tuberculosis
3. Tetanus
4. Typhoid

Answer: 4. Typhoid

Question 34. In hypersensitivity reactions, T lymphocytes are associated with

1. Anaphylactic reaction
2. Immune complex status
3. Cytotoxic reaction
4. Cell mediatéd immunity

Answer: 4. Cell mediatéd immunity

Question 35. Streptococci associated with dental caries are

1. S. equi
2. S. bovis
3. S. mutans
4. S. avium

Answer: 3. S. mutans

Question 36. Bacillus anthracis

1. Motile, non-encapsulated and non-sporing organism
2. Has the tremendous capacity to infect the handler
3. Causes primary disease in human
4. Is resistant to penicillin

Answer: 4. Is resistant to penicillin

Question 37. In diphtheria

1. Domestic animals are a reservoir of infection
2. Men are the source and reservoir of infection
3. Endotoxin produces a local lesions
4. The schick test is negative

Answer: 2. Men are the source and reservoir of infection

Question 38. Mycobacterium can ideally be demonstrated with the highest sensitivity and specificity by

1. Acid-fast stain
2. PCR
3. Culture
4. Biopsy

Answer: 2. PCR

Question 39. Opportunistic fungal infection usually occurs in

1. Young healthy person
2. Immunocompromised person
3. Old person
4. Children

Answer: 2. Immunocompromised person

Question 40. The viruses

1. Can be grown on artificial media
2. Have rigid cell wall
3. Have both RNA and DNA together
4. Cannot be activated by antibiotics

Answer: 3. Have both RNA and DNA together

Question 41. Pentamer antibody is

1. IgG
2. IgM
3. IgA
4. IgE

Answer: 2. IgM

Question 42. The virulence factor of Pneumococcus is

1. Fimbria
2. Slime layer
3. Toxin
4. Capsule polysaccharide

Answer: 4. Capsule polysaccharide

Question 43. Which of the following media is transport media?

1. Pike’s media
2. Crystal violet pectate media
3. Stuart’s media
4. Saboraud’s media

Answer: 3. Stuart’s media

Question 44. Nagler’s test is done for testing the toxin production in

1. Diphtheria
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Group B Streptococcus
4. Clostridium welchii

Answer: 4. Clostridium welchii

Question 45. R+ factor is transmitted by

1. Conjugation
2. Mutation
3. Transduction
4. Transformation

Answer: 1. Conjugation

Question 46. All of the following are gram-positive anaerobic bacilli, except

1. Propionibacterium
2. Mobiluncus
3. Fusobacterium
4. Bifidobacterium

Answer: 3. Fusobacterium

Question 47. Trichophyton species affect

1. Skin and nails
2. Skin and hair
3. Nails and hair
4. Skin, nails, and hair

Answer: 4. Skin, nails, and hair

Question 48. DNA hepatitis virus is

1. Hepatitis A virus
2. Hepatitis B virus
3. Hepatitis C virus
4. Hepatitis E virus

Answer: 2. Hepatitis B virus

Question 49. Which of the following staining techniques cannot be used for Treponema palladium?

1. Giemsa staining
2. Gram staining
3. Immunofluorescence staining
4. Silver impregnation staining

Answer: 2. Gram staining

Question 50. Which of the following bacteria is/are involved in the production of dental caries?

1. Streptococcus mutants
2. Streptococcus sanguis
3. Both of the above
4. None of the above

Answer: 3. Both of the above

Question 51. Following are the nonstructural genes of HIV 1 virus, except:

1. Tat
2. Nef
3. Vif
4. Vpx

Answer: 4. Vpx

Question 52. All the following are the features of Pneumococcus except

1. Bile insolubility
2. Optochin sensitivity
3. Gram positivity
4. Encapsulation

Answer: 1. Bile insolubility

Question 53. The toxigenicity of Corynebacterium diphtheriae is due to

1. Lambda phage
2. T-4 phage
3. Beta phage
4. T-2 phage

Answer: 3. Beta phage

Question 54. In bacterial growth culture bacteria have the maximum cell size towards the end of

1. Lag phase
2. Log phase
3. Stationary phase
4. Phase of decline

Answer: 1. Lag phase

Question 55. The major component of complement is

1. C 1
2. C 2
3. C 3
4. C 4

Answer: 3.  C 3

Question 56. Grafts between two genetically non-identical members of the same species are called:

1. Autograft
2. Isograft
3. Allograft
4. Xenograft

Answer: 3. Allograft

Question 57. Cary Blair is

1. Transport medium
2. Liquid medium
3. Enriched medium
4. Differential medium

Answer: 1. Transport medium

Question 58. Incineration means

1. Sterilization of glassware
2. Sterilization of media
3. Burning to ashes
4. Disinfection

Answer: 3. Burning to ashes

Question 59. Mycobacterium intracellular is

1. Photochromogen
2. Scotochromogen
3. Non-photochromogen
4. Rapid growth

Answer:  3. Non-photochromogen

Question 60. TCBS medium is used for the growth of

1. Salmonella typhi
2. Escherichia coli
3. Vibrio cholera
4. Shigella dysenteriae

Answer: 3. Vibrio cholerae

Question 61. All are the methods of transmission of genetic material except

1. Transformation
2. Conjugation
3. Transduction
4. Transportation

Answer: 4. Transportation

Question 62. The infective form of E. histolytica is

1. Binucleate cyst
2. Mononucleate cyst
3. Trophozoite form
4. Quadrinucleate cyst

Answer:  4. Quadrinucleate cyst

Question 63. In diphtheria:

1. Domestic animals are a reservoir of infection
2. Men are the source and reservoir of infection
3. Endotoxin produces local lesions
4. The schick test is negative

Answer: 2. Men are the source and reservoir of infection

Question 64. The causative agent of syphilis is

1. Treponema pallidum
2. Clostridium species
3. Corynebacterium
4. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Answer: 1. Treponema pallidum

Question 65. Streptococcus pyogenes causing pyogenic infections

1. Has the characteristic to be localized
2. Has the characteristic to spread
3. Both of the above
4. None of the above

Answer: 3. Both of the above

Question 66. Only immunoglobulin is transported through the placenta and provide passive immunity to newborn

1. IgG
2. IgM
3. IgE
4. IgD

Answer: 1. IgG

Question 67. Immunoglobulin involved in anaphylaxis reaction is

1. IgG
2. IgM
3. IgE
4. IgD

Answer: 3. IgE

Question 68. A commonly used cultural medium for the cultivation of viruses is

1. NAME
2. Chocolate agar
3. SDA
4. Macconkey agar

Answer: 1. NAM

Question 69. Taenia solium and Taenia saginata are similar in many ways, but Taenia solium is more dangerous. Which of the following makes Taenia solium more dangerous

1. It has an armed scolex
2. It has fewer uterine branches than T. saginata
3. Man can be infected as an intermediate host by eating eggs from T. solium.
4. It produces more eggs than T. saginata.

Answer: 1. It has an armed scolex

Question 70. Virulence factors include

1. Toxins
2. Capsule
3. Enzymes
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 71. Ascaris lays

1. Only fertilized eggs
2. Only unfertilized eggs
3. Only decorticated eggs
4. Fertilized, unfertilized and decorticated eggs

Answer: 4. Fertilized, unfertilized, and decorticated eggs

Question 72. White plaques in the mouth, tongue, gums, and palate indicate infection caused by

1. Streptococcus
2. Staphylococcus
3. T. palladium
4. Candida albicans

Answer: 4. Candida albicans

Question 73. Most of the fungi with medical importance belong to

1. Phycomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes

Answer: 4. Deuteromycetes

Question 74. Antigens commonly involved in allergies are

1. Pollen grains
2. House dust
3. Ingestants like milk and eggs
4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 75. Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?

1. BCG
2. TAB
3. Rabies vaccine
4. Cholera vaccine

Answer: 1. BCG

Question 76. When a tissue or organ is transplanted in genetically unrelated members of the same species, such type of transplantation is called as

1. Xenograft
2. Allograft
3. Autograft
4. Isograft

Answer: 2. Allograft

Question 77. Robertson’s cooked meat media is

1. Anaerobic media
2. Aerobic media
3. Both of the above
4. None of these

Answer: 1. Anaerobic media

Question 78. Corynebacterium diphtheriae produces

1. Exotoxin
2. Endotoxin
3. Mycotoxin
4. Streptolysin ‘O’

Answer: 1. Exotoxin

Question 79. Streptolysin ‘O’ produced by S. pyogenes is

1. Oxygen labile
2. Oxygen stable
3. Heat stable
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Oxygen stable

Question 80. Which of the following is a common cause of nosocomial infections?

1. T. palladium
2. Candida albicans
3. tetani
4. Staphylococcus spp.

Answer: 2. Candida albicans

Question 81. Immunoglobulin which can cross the placenta

1. IgG
2. IgM
3. IgA
4. IgE

Answer: 1. IgG

Question 82. Plasmodium is a

1. Fungus
2. Parasite
3. Virus
4. Bacteria

Answer: 2. Parasite

Question 83. Bacteria flagella act as a

1. Organ of reproduction
2. Organ of locomotion
3. Organ of respiration
4. Organ of digestion

Answer: 2. Organ of locomotion

Question 84. MacConkey media is

1. Selective media
2. Liquid media
3. Nutrient media
4. Selective and indicator media

Answer: 1. Selective media

Question 85. In streptococcal infection the common route of entry is

1. Respiratory
2. Gastrointestinal
3. Genitourinary
4. All above

Answer: 1. Respiratory

Question 86. Clostridium tetani are

1. Gram-negative cocci
2. Non-mobile
3. The causative organism of lockjaw
4. All above

Answer: 3. Causative organism of lockjaw

Question 87. The toxigenicity of Corynebacterium diphtheriae is due to

1. Lambda phage
2. T4 phage
3. Beta phage
4. T2 phage

Answer: 3. Beta phage

Question 88. All are dimorphic fungus except

1. Sporothrix
2. Histoplasma
3. Cryptococcus
4. Rhinosporidium

Answer: 4. Rhinosporidium

Question 89. The Hepatitis B virus is a

1. dsDNA
2. ssDNA
3. Partial dsDNA
4. Partial dsRNA

Answer: 1. dsDNA

Question 90. Cell-mediated immunity is caused by

1. Plasma cell
2. B lymphocyte
3. T lymphocyte
4. All above

Answer: 3. T lymphocyte

Question 91. UV radiation is best suited for among which of the following

1. Syringes
2. Endoscopies
3. Vaccines
4. Culture media

Answer: 3. Vaccines

Question 92. Drug resistance or resistance transfer factor is transmitted by which of the following

1. Conjugation
2. Transformation
3. Transposition
4. All of the above

Answer: 1. Conjugation

Question 93. All the following cells take part in innate as well as adaptive immunity except

1. Macrophages
2. B-Lymphocytes
3. NK cells
4. T-Lymphocytes

Answer: 1. Macrophages

Question 94. If CD4 dysfunction occurs, which of the following process is affected

1. IgM and IgG production is decreased
2. Antigen presentation is defective
3. Deficiency of complement C3 is decreased
4. IgM to IgG switchover is disturbed

Answer: 1. IgM and IgG production is decreased

Question 95. Mantoux test (Mx test) is invariably negative in which clinical condition of tuberculosis

1. Iris tuberculosis
2. Post Iris tuberculosis
3. Extrapulmonary tuberculosis
4. Miliary tuberculosis

Answer: 4. Miliary tuberculosis

Question 96. Pathogenicity of Streptococcus pneumonia is mostly due to which of the following

1. Cell wall
2. Autolytic enzymes
3. Hemolysin
4. Capsules

Answer: 4. Capsules

Question 97. Commonest cause of gas gangrene is due to

1. Clostridium septicum
2. Clostridium nori
3. Clostridium perfringens
4. All of the above

Answer: 3. Clostridium perfringens

Question 98. Nocardia and actinomycetes are filamentous higher bacteria with similar morphologically. Which stains differ from?

1. Gram stain
2. Acid-fast stain
3. Giemsa stain
4. Culture on blood agar media

Answer: 2. Acid-fast stain

Question 99. HIV infection mostly destroys which cells

1. CD4 T-lymphocytes
2. CD8 T-lymphocytes
3. NK-lymphocytes
4. Dendritic cells

Answer: 1. CD4 T-lymphocytes

Question 100. Kerion’s clinical condition happens due to

1. Candida
2. Pseudomonas
3. Herpes simplex virus
4. Dermatophytes

Answer: 4. Dermatophytes

Question 101. In malaria, the form of plasmodium transmitted to a man from a mosquito is:

1. Sporozoite
2. Gametocytes
3. Merozoites
4. Trophozoites

Answer: 2. Gametocytes

Question 102. The host that harbors the adult or sexually mature parasite is called

1. Intermediate host
2. Commensal host
3. Symbiotic host
4. Definitive host

Answer: 4. Definitive host

Question 103. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding hookworm infestation

1. Hookworm infection causes anemia
2. Man acquires infection when filariform larvae penetrate the skin
3. Hookworm infection may sometimes be acquired by oral route
4. Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding trophozoites in the stool

Answer: 4. Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding trophozoites in the stool

Question 104. Which of the following bacterial substance binds to the Fc portion of immunoglobulin molecules

1. Endotoxin
2. Coagulase
3. Lipoteichoic acid
4. Protein A

Answer: 4. Protein A

Question 105. Which of the following components enhances the binding of the antigen-antibody complex to macrophages

1. C1
2. C3a
3. C3b
4. C8

Answer: 3. C3b

Question 106. Two tests are used to detect the presence of HIV infection are

1. Agglutination and neutralization reactions
2. Complement fixation and immunofluorescence tests
3. ELISA and Western blot
4. Hemagglutination and Coombs test

Answer: 3. ELISA and Western blot

Question 107. Which of the following is an RNA virus?

1. Human papilloma virus
2. Human T cell leukemia virus
3. Hepatitis B virus
4. Epstein-Barr virus

Answer: 2. Human T cell leukemia virus

Question 108. The most reliable method for diagnosis of primary syphilis is

1. VDRL test
2. FTA-ABS
3. Microhemagglutination test
4. Darkfield examination of chancre material

Answer: 3. Microhemagglutination test

Question 109. The antiphagocytic property of the Group A Streptococcus is associated with which of the following

1. Hyaluronidase
2. Streptolysin S
3. M protein
4. Peptidoglycan

Answer: 3. M protein

Question 110. Which of the following test does not correspond with the respective disease?

1. Casoni’s test for hydatid disease
2. Frei’s test in infectious mononucleosis
3. Schick test for diphtheria
4. Wasserman test for syphilis

Answer: 2. Frei’s test in infectious mononucleosis

Question 111. The variable portion of the antibody molecule is

1. C-terminal
2. B-terminal
3. A-terminal
4. N-terminal

Answer: 4. N-terminal

Question 112. “Vi” antigen of Salmonella is helpful to find out

1. Carrier stage
2. Infective stage
3. Immunity
4. Susceptibility

Answer: 1. Carrier stage

Question 113. The Streptococcus pneumoniae produced on blood agar

1. Alpha hemolysis
2. Beta hemolysis
3. Gamma hemolysis
4. No hemolysis

Answer: 1. Alpha hemolysis

Question 114. In malaria, the form of Plasmodium transmitted to man from mosquitoes is

1. Sporozoites
2. Gametocytes
3. Merozoites
4. Trophozoites

Answer: 1. Sporozoites

Question 115. The host that harbors the adult or sexually mature, parasite is called as

1. Intermediate host
2. Commensal host
3. Symbiotic host
4. Definite host

Answer: 4. Definite host

Question 116. Which of the following bacterial substance binds to the Fc portion of immunoglobulin molecules

1. Endotoxin
2. Coagulase
3. Lipoteichoic acid
4. Protein A

Answer: 4. Protein A

Question 117. The infected form of E. histolytica is

1. Binucleate cyst
2. Quadrinucleate cyst
3. Mononucleate cyst
4. Trophozoite form

Answer: 2. Quadrinucleate cyst

Question 118. The paul-Bunnell test is useful in the diagnosis of

1. Cytomegalovirus infection
2. Infectious mononucleosis
3. Herpes simplex infection
4. ECHO virus infection

Answer: 2. Infectious mononucleosis

Question 119. Chlamydospores are present in

1. Macrosporium
2. Epidermophyton
3. Candida albicans
4. Microsporum

Answer: 3. Candida albicans

Question 120. Which of the following components enhances the binding of the antigen-antibody complex to macrophages?

1. C1
2. C3a
3. C3b
4. C8

Answer: 3. C3b

Question 121. The Streptococcus pneumoniae produces on blood agar

1. Alpha hemolysis
2. Beta hemolysis
3. No hemolysis
4. Gamma hemolysis

Answer: 1. Alpha hemolysis

Question 122. The infective form of E. histolytica is

1. Quadrinucleate cysts
2. Commensal host
3. Definite host
4. Symbiotic host

Answer: 1. Quadrinucleate cysts

Question 123. The most reliable method for diagnosis of primary syphilis is

1. FTA-ABS
2. VDRL test
3. Microhemagglutination test
4. Dark field examination

Answer: 1. FTA-ABS

Question 124. Double-stranded RNA is seen in

1. Retrovirus
2. Reovirus
3. HIV virus
4. Rhabdovirus

Answer: 2. Reovirus

Question 125. The variable portion of the antibody molecule is

1. B-terminal
2. C-terminal
3. N-terminal
4. A-terminal

Answer: 3. N-terminal

Question 126. The paul-Baunnel test is used for the diagnosis of

1. Cytomegalovirus infection
2. Herpes simplex infection
3. Infectious mononucleosis
4. ECHO virus

Answer: 3. Infectious mononucleosis

Question 127. The antiphagocytic property of Group A streptococcus is associated with which of the following

1. Hyaluronidase
2. M protein
3. Streptolysin S
4. Peptidoglycans

Answer: 2. M protein

Question 128. Two tests are used to detect presence of HIV infection are

1. Agglutination and neutralization reaction
2. Compliment fixation and immunoflorescence test
3. ELISA and Western blot
4. Hemagglutination and Coombs test

Answer: 3. ELISA and Western blot

Question 129. Which of the following is an RNA virus?

1. Human papilloma virus
2. Human T cell leukemia virus
3. Hepatitis B virus
4. Epstein-B arr virus

Answer: 2. Human T cell leukemia virus

Question 130. Darting movements are seen in

1. Salmonella
2. Vibrio cholerae
3. Treponema
4. Clostridium

Answer: 1. Salmonella

 

Fill In The Blanks

Question 1. Widal test is due for serodiagnosis of ……………….
Answer: Enteric fever

Question 2. VDRL is a type of test ……………….
Answer: Non-specific test

Question 3. Candidiasis is caused by the organism ……………….
Answer: Candida albicans

Question 4. Complement is obtained from ……………….
Answer: Macrophages and other host cells

Question 5. Blackwater fever is caused by ……………….
Answer: P. falciparum

 

Viva-Voce Questions For Practical Examination

Question 1. Who had discovered the microscope?
Answer: Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.

Question 2. Who had named the term vaccine?
Answer: Louis Pasteur

Question 3. Who has discovered blood groups?
Answer: Landsteiner

Question 4. Which bacteria appear as spherical or oval cells?
Answer: Cocci

Question 5. Who appear as rod-shaped cells?
Answer: Bacilli

Question 6. Which microscopic organism appears as comma-shaped bacteria?
Answer: Vibrio

Question 7. Name the bacteria which possess both capsule and slime layers.
Answer: Streptococcus salivarius

Question 8. Name the organ of adhesion of bacteria.
Answer: Fimbriae

Question 9. Name the phase in which there is no increase in number but there is an increase in the size of the cell.
Answer: Lag phase

Question 10. Name the phase where there is nutritional exhaustion and toxic accumulation which causes cell death.
Answer: Stationary phase

Question 11. Name the bacteria which are aerobic but are able to grow in the presence of oxygen.
Answer: Facultative anaerobes

Question 12. Name the method of sterilization which kills organisms by protein denaturation and oxidative damage.
Answer: Dry heat

Question 13. Name the spores which are used to check efficiency of the hot air oven.
Answer: Clostridium tetani

Question 14. Which is the most appropriate method to sterilize operation theater?
Answer: UV radiation

Question 15. Which bacteria test the efficiency of ionizing radiation?
Answer: Micrococcus radiodurans

Question 16. Which agent is used universally for preparing solid media?
Answer: Agar

Question 17. Name the example of nutrient broth.
Answer: Simple media

Question 18. If blood serum or egg is added to basal media, what does it become?
Answer: Enriched media

Question 19. Name the media which allows the growth of only one type of bacteria.
Answer: Enrichment media

Question 20. If an inhibiting substance is added to the solid medium what it is known as?
Answer: Selective media

Question 21. Which agent is used to test efficacy of disinfectants?
Answer: Phenol

Question 22. MacConkey medium is an example of this media.
Answer: Differential media

Question 23. Robertsons’s cooked meat media is an example of this media.
Answer: Anaerobic media

Question 24. Which cells synthesize immunoglobulins?
Answer: Plasma cells

Question 25. Which is the major serum immunoglobulin?
Answer: IgG

Question 26. How much is the half-life of IgG?
Answer: 23 days

Question 27. Which is the only maternal immunoglobulin which is normally transported across the placenta and provides natural passive immunity in the newborn?
Answer: IgM

Question 28. Which immunoglobulin has the longest half-life?
Answer: IgG

Question 29. Which is the major immunoglobulin in saliva and tears?
Answer: IgA

Question 30. Which antibody is known as a millionaire molecule?
Answer: IgM

Question 31. Which is the earliest immunoglobulin to be synthesized by a fetus?
Answer: IgM

Question 32. Which immunoglobulin is intravascular?
Answer: IgD

Question 33. Which immunoglobulin mediates hypersensitivity?
Answer: IgE

Question 34. Name the protein seen in multiple myeloma.
Answer: Bence-Jones protein

Question 35. Which type of test is the VDRL test?
Answer: Slide agglutination test

Question 36. Where does Hassal’s corpuscles are seen?
Answer: Thymus

Question 37. Which is the largest lymphoid organ?
Answer: Spleen

Question 38. Where does white pulp, red pulp, and Malphigian corpuscles are seen?
Answer: Spleen

Question 39. Which cell show the cartwheel appearance of its nucleus?
Answer: Plasma cell

Question 40. What do macrophages know in the liver, lungs, and spleen?
Answer: In the liver as Kupffr cells, in the lung as alveolar macrophages, and in spleen as sinus histiocytes

Question 41. Which is the most important vasoactive amine in human anaphylaxis?
Answer: Histamine

Question 42. Which type of hypersensitivity do Arthus reaction and serum sickness represent?
Answer: Type III hypersensitivity reaction

Question 43. Which reaction is known as a delayed hypersensitivity reaction?
Answer: Type IV reaction

Question 44. Which test detects hypersensitivity?
Answer: Patch test

Question 45. In which disease antibodies against acetylcholine receptors present on myoneural functions of striated muscles?
Answer: Myasthenia gravis.

Question 46. If an organ or tissue is taken from an individual and is grafted on himself, what does it known as.
Answer: Autograft

Question 47. If an organ or tissue is taken from an individual and is grafted on another person of the same genetic constitution, what does it know as.
Answer: Isograft

Question 48. What does graft between two genetically non-identical members of the same species is known as?
Answer: Allograft

Question 49. What does graft between members of different species is known as?
Answer: Xenograft

Question 50. Which blood group is commonly associated with duodenal ulcers?
Answer: O

Question 51. Which blood group is commonly associated with stomach cancer?
Answer: A

Question 52. Which type of colonies are produced by most of the staphylococcal strains from pyogenic lesions?
Answer: Golden yellow colonies

Question 53. Which type of appearance is produced by S. aureus on nutrient agar?
Answer: Oil paint appearance

Question 54. Which are the most resistant non-sporing bacteria?
Answer: Staphylococcus

Question 55. Name the toxin produced by staphylococci which produce pathogenecity.
Answer: Alpha toxin

Question 56. Which toxin is responsible for staphylococcal food poisoning?
Answer: Enterotoxin

Question 57. Name the test which leads to differentiation of S. aureus and other staphylococci.
Answer: Coagulase test

Question 58. Name the common deep infection caused by staphylococci.
Answer: Osteomyelitis

Question 59. Name the type of streptococci which causes green discoloration with partial hemolysis around the colonic.
Answer: α hemolytic

Question 60. Name the type of streptococci which produces sharp defied clear colorless zone of hemolysis.
Answer: β hemolytic

Question 61. Name the microorganism which causes scarlet fever.
Answer: S. pyogenes

Question 62. What is the shape of pneumococci?
Answer: Flame shape

Question 63. Which microorganism produces draughtsman or carrom coin appearance on blood agar?
Answer: Pneumococci

Question 64. Which is the most serious pneumococci infection?
Answer: Meningitis

Question 65. Which microorganism shows metachromatic granules or Babes Ernst granules or polar bodies?
Answer: Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Question 66. Which strain is used universally used for toxin production?
Answer: Park-William strain

Question 67. Which was the first pathogenic bacterium to be seen under the microscope?
Answer: Bacillus anthracis

Question 68. Which are the largest pathogenic bacteria?
Answer: Bacillus anthracis

Question 69. Which is the most important causative agent of gas gangrene?
Answer: Clostridium welchi

Question 70. Which toxin is responsible fortoxemia ofgas gangrene?
Answer: Alpha toxin

Question 71. Which disease is known as malignant edema?
Answer: Gas gangrene

Question 72. Name the bacilli with a drumstick appearance.
Answer: Clostridium tetani

Question 73. Name the important toxin of Clostridium tetani.
Answer: Tetanospasmin

Question 74. What does tetanus toxin block in the spinal cord?
Answer: Synaptic transmission

Question 75. What is the first symptom of tetanus?
Answer: Trismus

Question 76. Which bacteria cause food poisoning?
Answer: Clostridium botulinum

Question 77. On which system does botulinum toxin act?
Answer: Parasympathetic system

Question 78. Which are the most common anaerobe isolated from clinical specimens?
Answer: Bacteroides

Question 79. Which is the most common bacteria which leads to urinary tract infections?
Answer: E. coli

Question 80. Salmonella typhi causes which disease?
Answer: Typhoid fever

Question 81. Which are the differential media for salmonella?
Answer: MacConkey’s media and Wilson-Blair media

Question 82. Which is a good culture medium for S. typhi?
Answer: Bile

Question 83. Which disease shows step ladder fever and rose spots?
Answer: Typhoid

Question 84. Which bacteria show fish in stream appearance?
Answer: Vibrio cholera

Question 85. On which enzyme does cholera toxin act on?
Answer: Adenyly cyclase

Question 86. Which bacteria demonstrate a safety pin appearance?
Answer: Yersinia pestis

Question 87. Which is the most common form of plague.
Answer: Bubonic form

Question 88. Where does kill vaccine in India is prepared?
Answer: Haffke institute Mumbai

Question 89. What does Bacillus pertussis lead to?
Answer: Whooping cough

Question 90. Which disease is known as familial Mediterranean fever?
Answer: Brucellosis

91. Which bacilli is known as acid-fast bacilli?
Answer: Mycobacterium

Question 92. Why there is a presence of acid-fastness in bacterial cell wall?
Answer: Due to mycolic acid

Question 93. Which solid media is used for the culture of M. tuberculosis?
Answer: Lowstein-Jenson media

Question 94. Which type of vaccine is BCG?
Answer: Live attenuated vaccine

Question 95. Lepra bacilli arranged in parallel rows of globe shows which type of appearance?
Answer: Cigar bundle

Question 96. Which stage of syphilis shows hard chancer?
Answer: Primary stage

Question 97. Which is the most infectious stage of syphilis?
Answer: Secondary stage

Question 98. In which stage gumma is seen?
Answer: Tertiary stage

Question 99. Lumpy jaw is associated with which disease?
Answer: Actinomycosis

Question 100. Name the most common form of actinomycosis in human
Answer: Cervicofacial

Question 101. What does an extracellular infectious virus particle is known as?
Answer: Virion

Question 102. Which is the largest virus?
Answer: Pox virus

Question 103. Which is the smallest virus?
Answer: Parvovirus

Question 104. Name the agent by which viral protein is made up of.
Answer: Lipoprotein

Question 105. In which disease Negri bodies are seen?
Answer: Rabies

Question 106. Name the viruses which infect bacteria.
Answer: Bacteriophages

Question 107. Name the intranuclear inclusion bodies seen in herpes.
Answer: Lipschut

Question 108. Which is the most common virus infection in hum?
Answer: Herpes simplex

Question 109. Herpes virus Type I remain latent in which ganglion.
Answer: Trigeminal ganglion

Question 110. In which disease Tzanck cells are seen?
Answer: Herpes

Question 111. Name the virus causing chickenpox.
Answer: Varicella zoster

Question What does herpes zoster also know as?
Answer: Shingles and zona

Question 113. Name the largest virus of the herpes family.
Answer: Cytomegalovirus

Question 114. Name the virus causing mumps.
Answer: Paramyxovirus

Question 115. Warthin–Finkeldey giant cells are seen in which disease?
Answer: Measles

Question 116. Which disease is known as infective hepatitis?
Answer: Hepatitis A

Question 117. Which disease is known as serum hepatitis?
Answer: Hepatitis B

Question 118. Which is the most common mode of transmission of the hepatitis virus?
Answer: Parenteral

Question 119. Hepatitis B virus belongs to which family of viruses.
Answer: Hepadnaviridae family

 

Very Short Questions

Question 1. Define immunity.
Answer: Immunity is defined as state of resistance or insusceptible- ability which is exhibited by the host towards injury caused by microorganisms or their products. This is the collective effort of cells, tissues, and various molecules of the immune system to recognize and defend against infectious
disease.

Question 2. The selective medium for Mycobacterium tuberculosis is
Answer: Lowenstein-Jensen medium

Question 3. The diagnostic test for typhoid fever is
Answer: Widal test

Question 4. Defie pyemia and toxemia
Answer: Pyemia: It is septicemia caused by pyogenic bacteria with multiple abscesses in internal organs such as the spleen, liver, kidneys, etc.

• Toxemia: It is the condition where bacterial toxins circulate inside the blood.

Question 5. Clostridium tetani grown in which medium?
Answer: Robert’s cooked meat media

Question 6. What are the stages of syphilis?
Answer: Following are the stages of syphilis:

• Primary syphilis
• Secondary syphilis
• Tertiary syphilis

Question 7. Flagellae are organs for
Answer: Locomotion

Question 8. Enumerate diffrent immunoglobulins
Answer: Following are the immunoglobulins:

• IgG
•  IgA
• IgM
•  IgD
• IgE

 

Additional Information

Scientists and their Discoveries:

Various Phases of Bacterial Growth Curve:

Various Immunoglobulins:

Various Types Of Staining:

Types of Infections:

Various carriers:

Various cultural media and organisms are associated with:

Shape and Arrangement of Various Bacteria:

Various Materials and their Methods of Sterilization:

Pasteurization of Milk:

• Holder’s method: 63°C for 30 minutes
• Flash process: 72°C for 15 to 20 seconds

Various Interleukins and Names of Their Secreting Cells:

Various Interleukins and Names of Their Secreting Cells:

Name of Various Cytokines and their Functions:

Various Tests and Category to which they belong:

The differential between two bacteria by Various Tests:

Identification Tests for Various Bacteria:

Various Exotoxins Produced By Bacteria and Their Actions:

Various Bacteria and their Growth in Various Environments:

Various Gram-positive and Gram-negative Microorganisms:

Various Bacteria and their Staining:

Various Bacteria and their Cultural Characteristic:

Various Clostridium and Diseases Caused by Them:

Various Hepatitis Viruses:

Various DNA Viruses:

• Poxviridae, for example,  Smallpox, molluscum contagiosum
• Herpesviridae, for example, Herpes simplex, Varicella zoster, Epstein-B arr virus, cytomegalovirus
• Adenoviridae
• Papovaviridae (consists of single-stranded RNA), for example, Human papillomavirus
• Hepadnaviridae, for example, the Hepatitis B virus
• Parvoviridae, for example,  Parvovirus

Various RNA Viruses:

• Picornaviridae, for example, Polio, Coxsackie, Rhinovirus, Hepatitis A
• Orthomyxoviridae, for example, Influenza
• Paramyxoviridae, for example, Measles, Mumps
• Reoviridae (consists of double-stranded RNA)
• Retrovirus, for example, HIV
• Togaviridae, for example, Rubella
• Rhabdoviridae, for example, Rabies virus
• Flaviviridae, for example, Hepatitis C and G
• Hepeviridae/calciviridae, for example, Hepatitis E

The tendency of Exposures that Carry Maximum Risk of Transmission of HIV:

Classification of Human Viruses based on their Affinity to Different systems:

Various Carriers and their Meanings:

Various Worms and their Names:

Characteristics of Various Plasmodia Leading to Malaria:

Sites Affected by Amoebiasis:

Various Arthopods and Diseases Caused by them:

Drinking Water Classification as per Bacteriological Tests:

Important Microorganisms and diseases caused by them:

Various Diseases and their incubation periods:

Inclusion Bodies and Organisms Associated with it:

Infective Stages of Various Parasites:

Types Of Herpes Viruses and Diseases caused by them: