Multiple Choice Questions
1. Adamantinoma or ameloblastoma may be seen in all except:
1. Odontogenic epithelium
2. Femur Bone
3. Tibia Bone
4. Stalk of pituitary
Answer:2. Femur Bone
2. The most common tumor in the minor salivary gland,which spreads through neural sheath is:
1. Acinar cell carcinoma
2. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
3. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
4. Pleomorphic adenoma
Answer: 2. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
Read And Learn More: General Surgery Question And Answers
3. In submandibular gland surgery, the nerve least likely to be injured is:
1. Hypoglossal nerve
2. Lingual nerve
3. Inferior alveolar nerve
4. Mandibular branch of facial nerve
Answer: 3. Inferior alveolar nerve
4. Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by the following except:
1. Generalized osteoporosis
2. Osteosclerosis
3. Hypercalcemia
4. Renal calculus
Answer: 2. Osteosclerosis
5. True about Warthin tumor of salivary gland is:
1. Malignant neoplasm
2. Rapidly growing tumor
3. Gives a “Hot” pertechnetate scan
4. Gives a “Cold” pertechnetate scan
Answer: 3. Gives a “Hot” pertechnetate scan
6. In fracture, mandible osteosynthesis or rigid fiation is done by all except:
1. Bone grafting
2. miniplates
3. Leg screws
4. Arch bar
Answer: 1. Bone grafting
7. The cleft lip is best repaired at the age of:
1. 5 months
2. One year of age
3. 6 years to 8 years of age
4. At puberty
Answer: 1. 5 months
8. Sjögren’s syndrome is characterized by all except:
1. Xerostomia
2. Keratoconjunctivitis
3. Rheumatic arthritis
4. Enlargement of salivary gland
Answer: 4. Enlargement of salivary gland
9. The X-ray of Jaw shows “Honeycomb” appearence, the diagnosis is:
1. Granulomatous epulis
2. Osteoclastoma
3. Ameloblastoma
4. Dentigerous cyst
Answer: 3. Ameloblastoma
10. The most common cause of thyroiditis is:
1. Riedle’s thyroiditis
2. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
3. Subacute thyroiditis
4. Cervicofacial actinomycosis
Answer: 2. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
11. The skin grafting is not done in infection with:
1. Pseudomonas
2. E. coli
3. β-hemolyticus streptococci
4. Staphylococci
Answer: 3. β-hemolyticus streptococci
12. The most common presenting complaint of medullary carcinoma of thyroid is:
1. Diarrhea
2. Dysphagia
3. Flushing
4. Hoarseness of voice
Answer: 1. Diarrhea
13. What is the advantage of chromic catgut over plain catgut suture in deep wounds?
1. Greater strength
2. Greater ease to use
3. Delayed resorption
4. Less tissue reaction
Answer: 4. Less tissue reaction
14. An allograft is transfer of tissue between:
1. Sister to brother
2. Unrelated donor
3. Same individual
4. Monozygotic twins
Answer: 1. Sister to brother
15. Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by following except:
1. Generalized osteoporosis
2. Hypercalcemia
3. Osteosclerosis
4. Renal stone formation
Answer: 3. Osteosclerosis
16. Ameloblastoma may be seen in all except:
1. Jaws
2. Pituitary stalk
3. Tibia
4. Hip bone
Answer: 4. Hip bone
17. The papillary carcinoma of thyroid having all except:
1. Most common thyroid cancer
2. Psammoma bodies seen
3. Encapsulated
4. Blood borne metastasis is common
Answer: 4. Blood borne metastasis is common
18. In cleft lip operation, all the stitches are removed on:
1. 2nd day
2. 4th to 5th day
3. 10th day
4. 14th day
Answer: 2. 4th to 5th day
19. A patient presents with neck swelling and respiratory distress few hours after thyroidectomy, the next management would be:
1. Open immediately
2. Tracheostomy
3. Wait and watch
4. Oxygen by mask
Answer: 2. Tracheostomy
20. In facial injury with voluntary control lost over tongue,the best emergency treatment to prevent tongue from falling back is by:
1. Definitive treatment
2. Oropharyngeal airway
3. Towel clipping of tongue
4. Deep traction suture of tongue
Answer: 3. Towel clipping of tongue
21. Skin is best:
1. Dressing
2. Cosmetic
3. Layer
4. Cover
Answer: 4. Cover
22. Tissue is best
1. Antibiotic
2. Antiseptic
3. Meat
4. Culture
Answer: 2. Antiseptic
23. Rhincompatibility in pregnant woman causes:
1. Neonatal jaundice
2. Placenta previa
3. Hydrops fetalis
4. Acute renal failure
Answer: 3. Hydrops fetalis
24. Hemophilia is due to congenital defiiency of:
1. Factor III
2. Factor VII
3. Factor IX
4. Factor VIII
Answer: 3. Factor IX
25. Hepatitis B virus is:
1. DNA virus
2. RNA virus
3. Flavi virus
4. Incomplete RNA virus
Answer: 1. DNA virus
26. Edge of a malignant ulcer is:
1. Raised
2. Undermined
3. Sloping
4. Everted
Answer: 4. Everted
27. Most rapid diagnosis of tuberculosis can be done with:
1. Polymerase chain reaction
2. ZN staining
3. Bacterial culture
4. Tuberculin test
Answer: 2. ZN staining
28. Most suitable antibiotic in gas gangrene is:
1. Cloxacillin
2. Penicillin
3. Gentamicin
4. 3rd generation cephalosporin
Answer: 2. Penicillin
29. Most ancient plastic surgery was performed in
1. Greece
2. Rome
3. Egypt
4. India
Answer: 4. India
30. HIV-1 virus is considerably less infective than Hepatitis-B:
1. True
2. False
Answer: 1. True
31. FNAC is useful in all thyroid carcinomas except:
1. Papillary
2. Follicular
3. Medullary
4. Anaplastic
Answer: 2. Follicular
32. The open methods of reduction and immobilization of fracture body of mandible are all except:
1. Miniplates
2. Transosseous wiring
3. Lag screws
4. Arch bar
Answer: 2. Transosseous wiring
33. Hormones produced by medullary carcinoma of thyroid are:
1. Calcitonin
2. Prostaglandins
c. Serotonin
4. All a, b and c
5. None
Answer: 1. Calcitonin
34. A patient with a fitula and chronic pus discharge from lower face and mandible is most commonly suffring from:
1. Dental cyst
2. Vincent angina
3. Ludwig angina
4. Actinomycosis
Answer: 4. Actinomycosis
35. Axonotmesis is:
1. Rupture of nerve fiers in an intact sheath
2. Rupture of nerve sheath only
3. Rupture of nerve fiers and nerve sheath
4. Physiological paralysis of nerve fiers
Answer: 3. Rupture of nerve fiers and nerve sheath
36. ‘Tetany’ is caused by all except:
1. Hypoparathyroidism
2. Rickets
3. Osteomalacia
4. Hyperparathyroidism
Answer: 4. Hyperparathyroidism
37. The most common tumor of minor salivary gland is:
1. Mucoepidermoid
2. Acinic cell carcinoma
3. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
4. Pleomorphic adenocarcinoma
Answer: 1. Mucoepidermoid
38. The most common site of thyroglossal cyst is:
1. Suprahyoid
2. Subhyoid
3. Floor of mouth
4. At the level of cricoid cartilage
Answer: 2. Subhyoid
39. Common type of cleft lip is:
1. Mid line
2. Unilateral
3. Bilateral
4. Cleft lip combined with cleft palate
Answer: 2. Unilateral
40. Immediate management of a patient with multiple fracture and flid loss includes the infusion:
1. Blood
2. Dextran
3. Normal saline
4. Ringer lactate
Answer: 4. Ringer lactate
41. What is cognizable medicolegal situation?
1. Fracture
2. Abrasion
3. Ecchymosis
Answer: 1. Fracture
42. Surgical incision heal by:
1. First intension
2. Second intension
Answer: 1. First intension
43. Sulphur granules are seen in pus of:
1. Carbuncle
2. Abscess
3. Actinomycosis
4. Erysipelas
Answer: 3. Actinomycosis
44. Torniquet is the best treatment for bleeding venous ulcer in lower limb:
1. True
2. False
Answer: 2. False
45. Normally, cyst is diagnosed by eliciting flctuation test:
1. True
2. False
Answer: 1. True
46. Hypertrophied scar usually is result of healing by:
1. Second intension
2. First intension
Answer: 1. Second intension
47. Hemophilia is transferred genetically by:
1. Autosomes
2. Sex chromosomes
3. Mitochondria
4. Golgi complex
Answer: 2. Sex chromosomes
48. Involvement of lymph nodes by secondaries from a cancer is:
1. Stoney hard
2. Soft
3. Firm
4. Fluctuant
Answer: 1. Stoney hard
49. The edge of tubercular ulcer is:
1. Everted
2. Raised
3. Undermined
4. Sloping
Answer: 3. Undermined
50. Universal blood donor belongs to blood group:
1. A
2. B
3. AB
4. O
Answer: 4. O
51. Unilateral cleft lip is more common on:
1. Right side
2. Left side
3. Median
4. None of the above
Answer: 2. Left side
52. Which type of thyroid cancer has the best prognosis?
1. Papillary
2. Follicular
3. Medullary
4. Anaplastic
Answer: 1. Papillary
53. The most common form of actinomycosis is:
1. Thoracic
2. Fasciocervical
3. Liver
4. Right iliac fossa
Answer: 2. Fasciocervical
54. Radiologically, the ‘Honeycomb’ appearance is seen in:
1. Myeloid epulis
2. Granulomatous epulis
3. Ameloblastoma
4. Dentigerous cyst
Answer: 3. Ameloblastoma
55. Skin grafting is absolutely contraindicated in which infection:
1. Staphyloccoccus
2. Pseudomonas
3. Proteus
4. Streptococcus hemolyticus
Answer: 4. Streptococcus hemolyticus
56. The structure preserved in functional block dissection in papillary carcinoma thyroid are all except:
1. Sternomastoid muscle
2. Internal jugular vein
3. Spinal accessory nerve
4. Enlarged lymph nodes
Answer: 2. Internal jugular vein
57. The swelling in neck moves with deglutition are all except:
1. Thyroglossal cyst
2. Subhyoid bursitis
3. Pretracheal lymph nodes
4. Branchial cyst
Answer: 4. Branchial cyst
58. Highly transilluminated, cystic and compressible swelling in posterior triangle of neck is:
1. Cystic hygroma
2. Branchial cyst
3. Thyroglossal cyst
4. Dermoid cyst
Answer: 1. Cystic hygroma
59. Recurrent laryngeal nerve is in close relation or associated with:
1. Superior thyroid artery
2. Inferior thyroid artery
3. Superior thyroid vein
4. Inferior thyroid vein
Answer: 2. Inferior thyroid artery
60. Advantages of vicryl suture material over chromic catgut are all except:
1. Delayed resorption
2. Less tissue reaction
3. Greater strength
4. Cheap then chromic
Answer: 1. Delayed resorption
61. Open methods of treatment of fracture mandible are all except:
1. Miniplates
2. Transosseous wiring
3. Bone plating
4. Arch bar
Answer: 4. Arch bar
62. The cysts containing cholesterol crystals are all except:
1. Periapical cyst
2. Dentigerous cyst
3. Branchial cyst
4. Dermoid cyst
Answer: 1. Periapical cyst
63. A patient has lacerated untidy wound in leg and attended the casualty after two hours. The wound should be:
1. Sutured immediately
2. Debrided and sutured immediately
3. Debrided and sutured secondarily
4. Clean and dress only
Answer: 2. Debrided and sutured immediately
64. A 80yearold edentulous patient with midline tumor of lower jaw involving alveolar margin the treatment of choice is:
1. Hemimandibulectomy
2. Marginal mandibulectomy
3. Commando’s operation
4. Segmental mandibulectomy
Answer: 4. Segmental mandibulectomy
65. Not a feature of De Quervains disease:
1. Autoimmune etiology
2. Increased ESR
3. Tends to regress spontaneously
4. Painful and associated with enlargement of thyroid
Answer: 1. Autoimmune etiology
66. Highest chances of malignancy in oral cavity is due to:
1. Leukoplakia
2. Lichen planus
3. Erythroplakia
4. Aphthous ulcers
Answer: 3. Erythroplakia
67. Which of the following causes maximum bleeding?
1. Partial arterial tear
2. Complete arterial tear
3. Artery caught between fractured ends of bone
4. Intimal tear
Answer: 1. Partial arterial tear
68. All are the pulsating swellings except:
1. Plexiform hemangioma
2. Carotid aneurysm
3. Primary thyrotoxicosis
4. Sternomastoid tumors
Answer: 4. Sternomastoid tumors
69. Early multiple painful ulcers on tongue are seen in all except:
1. Aphthous ulcers
2. Carcinomatous ulcer
3. Tubercular
4. Herpes
Answer: 2. Carcinomatous ulcer
70. Incisional or open biopsy should not be taken from all except:
1. Malignant melanoma
2. Parotid gland
3. Tongue and cheek
4. Thyroid gland
Answer: 3. Tongue and cheek
71. Admantinoma or ameloblastoma may be seen in all except:
1. Odontogenic epithelium
2. Femur bone
3. Tibia bone
4. Stalk of pituitary
Answer: 4. Stalk of pituitary
72. The X-ray of jaw shows ‘honeycomb’ appearance:
1. Granulomatous epulis
2. Osteoclastoma
3. Ameloblastoma
4. Dentigerous cyst
Answer: 3. Ameloblastoma
73. In fracture mandible osteosynthesis or rigid fiation is done by all except:
1. Bone grafting
2. Miniplates
3. Leg screw
4. Arch bar
Answer: 1. Bone grafting
74. The most common site of thyroglossal cyst is:
1. Suprahyoid
2. Subhyoid
3. Floor of the mouth
4. At the level of cricoids cartilage
Answer: 2. Subhyoid
75. The papillary carcinoma thyroid is having all except:
1. Most common thyroid cancer
2. Psammoma bodies are seen
3. Encapsulated
4. Blood-borne metastasis is common
Answer: 4. Blood-borne metastasis is common
76. In cleft lip operation all stitches after operation are removed on:
1. 3rd day
2. 4th to 5th day
3. 10th day
4. 14th day
Answer: 2. 4th to 5th day
77. A 14yearsold child presented with progressive cervical lymph node enlargement since 3 month. The diagnosis can be achieved by:
1. X-ray soft tissues of neck
2. CBP ESR
3. Lymph node biopsy
4. CT scan of neck
Answer: 3. Lymph node biopsy
78. Structure preserved in modifid radical neck dissection in:
1. Internal jugular vein
2. Sternomastoid muscle
3. XI nerve
4. X nerve
Answer: 3. XI nerve
79. Advantages of vicryl suture material over chromic catgut are all except:
1. Delayed resorption
2. Less tissue reaction
3. Greater strength
4. Cheaper than chromic
Answer: 1. Delayed resorption
80. The swelling in neck moves with deglutition are all except:
1. Thyroglossal cyst
2. Subhyoid bursa
3. Pretracheal lymph nodes
4. Branchial cyst
Answer: 3. Pretracheal lymph nodes
81. Hand of surgeon can be rendered aseptic by washing:
1. True
2. False
Answer: 2. False
82. Biopsy can be taken with as needle:
1. True
2. False
Answer: 1. True
83. Abscess should always be sutured closed after drainage:
1. True
2. False
Answer: 1. True
84. Skin should not be sutured by non-absorbable sutures:
1. True
2. False
Answer: 2. False
85. Heat sensitive surgical items can be best sterilized in a well-equipped OT by:
1. Formalin chambers
2. 2% glutaraldehyde
3. Ethylene oxide
4. Ionizing radiation
Answer: 3. Ethylene oxide
86. One of the following is an example of painless midline neck swelling:
1. Branchial cyst
2. Thyroglossal cyst
3. Cystic hygroma
4. Carotid body tumor
Answer: 2. Thyroglossal cyst
87. Jaw tumors associated with unerupted tooth is:
1. Dental cyst
2. Dentigerous cyst
c. Admantinoma
4. Giant cell granuloma
Answer: 2. Dentigerous cyst
88. Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by the following except:
1. Generalized osteoporosis
2. Osteosclerosis
3. Hypercalcemia
4. Renal calculus
Answer: 2. Osteosclerosis
89. The cleft lip is repaired at the age of:
1. 5 months
2. 1 year ago
3. 6–8 years
4. At puberty
Answer: 1. 5 months
90. Most common cause of thyroiditis is:
1. Riedel’s thyroiditis
2. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
3. Subacute thyroiditis
4. Viral thyroiditis
Answer: 2. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
91. FNAC is useful in all thyroid carcinoma except:
1. Papillary
2. Follicular
3. Medullary
4. Anaplastic
Answer: 2. Follicular
92. Immediate management of patient with multiple fracture and loss of blood with shock is the infusion of:
1. Dextrosaline
2. Dextran
3. Blood
4. Ringer’s lactate
Answer: 4. Ringer’s lactate
93. Bone metastasis is common in which type of thyroid cancer:
1. Medullary
2. Follicular
3. Papillary
4. Anaplastic
Answer: 3. Papillary
94. The most common type of cleft lip is:
1. Unilateral
2. Bilateral
3. Midline
Answer: 2. Bilateral
95. A patient has wide eyes, nervousness, raised systolic BP and weight loss. Most probable diagnosis is:
1. Hypothyroidism
2. Hyperthyroidism
3. Hyperparathyroidism
4. Hypoparathyroidism
Answer: 2. Hyperthyroidism
96. Collar stud abscess occurs in:
1. Cervical TB lymphadenitis
2. Peritonsillar abscess
3. Pyogenic lymphadenitis
4. Retropharyngeal abscess
Answer: 1. Cervical TB lymphadenitis
97. In long surgical procedure intubation method:
1. Nasotracheal tube with cuf
2. LMA
3. Nasotracheal tube with cuf
4. Endotracheal tube
Answer: 4. Endotracheal tube
98. Knife used for harvesting split thickness skin graft is:
1. Husson’s knife
2. Bard Parker knife
3. Humby’s knife
4. Foley’s knife
Answer: 3. Humby’s knife
99. Rapid infusion of blood causes:
1. Acute left heart failure
2. Pulmonary edema
3. Ankle edema
4. Respiratory distress
Answer: 2. Pulmonary edema
100. The best vein for total parenteral nutrition is:
1. Subclavian vein
2. Femoral
3. Brachial vein
4. Saphenous
Answer: 1. Subclavian vein
101. In the blood bank platelets are stored at:
1. 180C for 1 year
2. 2 to 40C for 35 days
3. 20 to 240C for 3 to 5 days
4. 20 to 250C for 35 days
Answer: 3. 20 to 240C for 3 to 5 days
102. The best dressing for open wounds is:
1. Skin
2. Amnion
c. Opsite
4. Tulle grass
Answer: 1. Skin
103. Reactionary hemorrhage occurs:
1. Within 24 hours of surgery
2. After 48 hours of surgery
3. After 72 hours of surgery
4. After 7 to 14 days of surgery
Answer: 1. Within 24 hours of surgery
104. The treatment of choice for stage I cancer larynx:
1. Radical surgery
2. Chemotherapy
3. Radiotherapy
4. Surgery followed by radiotherapy
Answer: 3. Radiotherapy
105. In an emergency tracheostomy incision is:
1. Vertical
2. Oblique
3. Horizontal
4. Paramedian
Answer: 3. Horizontal
106. Punched out edge is characteristic of ulcer:
1. Tuberculosis
2. Rodent ulcer
3. Syphilitic
4. Non – specifi
Answer: 3. Syphilitic
107. Loss of differentiation of tumor cells is called as:
1. Metaplasia
2. Dysplasia
3. Anaplasia
4. Hyperplasia
Answer: 3. Anaplasia
108. The muscle which is resected in classical neck dissection is:
1. Sternohyoid
2. Sternomastoid
3. Sternothyroid
d. Sternocricoid
Answer: 2. Sternomastoid
109. Painless ulcer of tongue is due to:
1. Dysplasia
2. Syphilis
3. Tuberculosis
4. None of the above
Answer: 1. Dysplasia
110. A patient having tumor of maxillary sinus manifest with excessive rolling tears from his eye, likely due to obstruction of:
1. Nasolacrimal duct
2. Conjunctival sac
3. Lacrimal gland
4. None of the above
Answer: 1. Nasolacrimal duct
111. Basal cell carcinomas:
1. Usually metastatize to regional lymph nodes
2. Common on the face and neck
3. Common in females
d. Radioresistant
Answer: 2. Common on the face and neck
112. All the following are congenital cysts except:
1. External angular dermoid cyst
2. Sebaceous cyst
3. Branchial cyst
4. Thyroglossal cyst
Answer: 2. Sebaceous cyst
113. Ranula is a condition which occurs in:
1. Preauricular area
2. Nasolabial angle
3. Medial angle of orbit
4. Floor of the mouth
Answer: 4. Floor of the mouth
114. Commonest premalignant lesion of oral cancer:
1. Leukoplakia
2. Syphilitic ulcer
3. Apthous ulcer
4. Erythroplakia
Answer: 1. Leukoplakia
115. Undermined edge is the characteristic of:
1. Rodent
2. Syphilitic
3. Tuberculosis
4. Squamous cell carcinoma
Answer: 3. Tuberculosis
116. Duct of parotid gland is known as:
1. Stenson’s duct
2. Wharton’s duct
3. Nasolacrimal duct
4. Bartholin’s duct
Answer: 1. Stenson’s duct
117. Largest number of lymph nodes are present in which area:
1. Axilla
2. Groin
3. Neck
4. Abdomen
Answer: 3. Neck
118. Marjolin’s ulcer is:
1. Wet gangrene
2. Dry gangrene
3. Premalignant
4. Malignant
Answer: 4. Malignant
119. Which of the following is congenital:
1. Sebaceous cyst
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Cystic hygroma
4. Vincent’s angina
Answer: 3. Cystic hygroma
120. Bell’s palsy occurs due to injury to:
1. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
2. Facial nerve
3. Trigeminal nerve
4. Ulnar nerve
Answer: 2. Facial nerve
121. Most common cyst for thyroglossal cyst is:
1. Suprahyoid
2. Subhyoid
3. Level of cricoids
4. Floor of mouth
Answer: 2. Subhyoid
122. Which neck swelling moves with swallowing:
1. Submandibular cyst
2. Thyroid cyst
3. Supraclavicular lymph node
4. Sternomastoid tumor
Answer: 2. Thyroid cyst
123. All are true about cystic hygroma except:
1. Pulsatile
2. May cause respiratory obstruction
3. Common in neck
4. Brilliant translucent
Answer: 1. Pulsatile
124. In management of thyroglossal cyst:
1. Central portion of hyoid excised
2. Sternothyroid muscle dissected
3. Isthmusectomy
4. Strap muscles excised
Answer: 1. Central portion of hyoid excised
125. FNAC is useful in all the following tumors of thyroid except:
1. Papillary carcinoma
2. Anaplastic carcinoma
3. Thyroiditis
4. Follicular carcinoma
Answer: 4. Follicular carcinoma
126. Everted edge is characteristic of………….ulcer:
1. TB
2. Malignant
3. Syphilitic
4. Healing
Answer:2. Malignant
127. Most common histological type of thyroid carcinoma is:
1. Medullary type
2. Follicular type
3. Papillary type
4. Anaplastic type
Answer: 3. Papillary type
128. There was sudden increase in the size of thyroid swelling along with pain. Most likely cause is:
1. Malignant change
2. Nodular goiter
3. Hemorrhage within the thyroid cyst
4. Colloid goiter
Answer: 1. Malignant change
129. Best dressing for open wound is:
1. Skin
2. Amnion
c. Opsite
4. Tulle grass
Answer: 1. Skin
130. Cystic compressible swelling in the posterior triangle of neck which is translucent is:
1. Cystic hygroma
2. Branchial cyst
3. Thyroglossal cyst
4. Dermoid cyst
Answer: 1. Cystic hygroma
131. Sistrunk’s operation is done in:
1. Parotid tumor
2. Thyroglossal fitula
3. Branchial cyst
4. Cystic hygroma
Answer: 2. Thyroglossal fitula
132. Complications of total thyroidectomy include all except:
1. Airway obstruction
2. Hoarsness
3. Hemorrhage
4. Hypercalcemia
Answer: 2. Hoarsness
133. Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by the following except:
1. Generalized osteoporosis
2. Renal calculi
3. Hypercalcemia
4. Osteosclerosis
Answer: 4. Osteosclerosis
134. After thyroidectomy patient developed stridor within two hours. All are likely cause of stridor except:
1. Hypocalcemia
2. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
3. Laryngomalacia
4. Wound hematoma
Answer: 1. Hypocalcemia
Fill In The Blanks
1. Duct of parotid gland is known as ……………….
Answer. Stensen’s duct
2. Duct of submandibular gland is known as ……………….
Answer. Wharton’s duct
3. Branches of facial nerve are (any three) …………….,…………………. And ……………….
Answer. Temporal, zygomatic and buccal
4. Two premalignant lesions are ………………. and……………….
Answer. Leukoplakia and erythroplakia
5. The most Common site of thyroglossal cyst is……………….
Answer. Subhyoid
6. FNAC cannot distinguish between a benign …………….and ………………. carcinoma of thyroid.
Answer. Follicular adenoma and follicular
7. The triad of thyroid swelling (Goiter), thyrotoxicosis and exopthalmosis is seen in ……………….
Answer. Grave’s disease
8. The swelling which moves on deglutition and also a protrusion of tongue is ……………….
Answer. Thyroglossal cyst
9. Infection in flor of mouth along with inflmmatory swelling in the neck is called as ……………….
Answer. Ludwig’s angina
10. The most commonly used local anesthetic agent is ……………….
Answer. Lignocaine
11. The term ‘Ubiquitous tumor’ is usually referred to ……………….
Answer. Fibrous tumor
12. The line of demarcation is usually seen between a living zone and dead zone is ……………….
Answer. Gangrene
13. Wash leather slough appearance of flor of ulcer is seen in ………………. ulcer.
Answer. Syphilitic
14. The abbreviation FNAC stands for ……………….
Answer. Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology
15. CSF rhinorrhea is seen in ………………. fossa fractures.
Answer. Anterior
16. A patient with multiple discharging sinuses along with faciocervical involvement is most probably suffrin from ……………….
Answer. Cervicofacial actinomycosis
17. The organ most sensitive to hypovolemic shock is ……………….
Answer. Brain, heart and lung
18. Mandible is most commonly fractured at ……………….
Answer. Condyles
19. Undermined edge is seen in ………………. ulcer.
Answer. Tuberculous ulcer
20. Submandibular gland lies on ………………. muscle.
Answer. Hyoglossus
21. The most commonly used absorbable suture material for closure of intraoral wound is ……………….
Answer. Catgut
22. The most common site of enlargement of lymph nodes in Hodgkin’s lymphoma is ……………….
Answer. Cervical region
23. The nerve most likely to get injured in parotid gland surgery is ……………….
Answer. Facial nerve
24. Father of Antiseptic surgery is ……………….
Answer. Joseph Lister
25. Commonest site for carcinoma tongue is ……………….
Answer. Anterior two third part
26. The most common indication for doing tracheostomy is ……………….
Answer. In head, neck and facial injuries
27. Father of Plastic Surgery is ……………….
Answer. Sir Harold Gillies
28. True or False: Antisepsis is better than asepsis ……………….
Answer. False
29. Most common method of instrument sterilization is ……………….
Answer. Autoclave
30. True/False: Cancrum oris is often associated with malnutrition
Answer. True
31. Tissue is best antiseptic. Yes or No
Answer. Yes
32. Metabolism of Ca2+ and PO4 is regulated by…………………….. hormone
Answer. Parathyroid
33. Biopsy and histopathological examination achieves fial diagnosis of a lump. True/False
Answer. True
34. Medullary thyroid cancer can cause diarrhea. True/False
Answer. True
35. Cacinomatous masses are often hard. True/False
Answer. True
36. Most common salivary gland tumor is ……………….
Answer. Pleomorphic adenoma
37. Universal blood donor group is ………………. and universal blood recipient group is ……………….
Answer. O negative, AB positive
38. Most common bacteria involved in abscess formation is ……………….
Answer. Staphylococcus aureus
39. The diffrence between sinus and fitula is …………
Answer. Fistula a pathway that leads from an internal cavity or organ to the surface of the body. A sinus tract is an abnormal channel that originates or ends in one opening.
40. Consistency of a malignant tumor on palpation is ……………….
Answer. Hard
41. Catgut is manufactured from ……………….
Answer. Submucosa of jejunum of sheep
42. Most commonly employed method of sterilization in OT is ……………….
Answer. UV radiation or formaldehyde
43. Edges of malignant ulcer is ……………….
Answer. Everted
44. ‘Slipping sign’ is observed in ……………….
Answer. Lipoma
45. A line of demarcation is usually seen between living and dead zone in ……………….
Answer. Gangrene
46. ………………. discovered germ theory of diseases.
Answer. Louis Pasteur
47. ………………. performed fist rhinoplasty.
Answer. Joseph Constantine Carpue
48. ………………. pioneered aseptic surgery
Answer. Joseph Lister
49. Rodent ulcer edge is……………….
Answer. Beaded
50. The fist sign in hypovolemic shock is………………. in pulse.
Answer. Increase
51. FNAC achieves bettr diagnosis than biopsy. (True or false)
Answer. False
52. Cancrum oris is generally associated with malnutrition.(True or false)
Answer. True
53. Tetanus has both tonic and clonic convulsions. (True or false)
Answer. True
54. Metastatic lymph nodes have ………………. consistency.
Answer. Stony hard
55. Aphthous ulcers are painful and multiple. (True or false)
Answer. True
56. Primary healing achieves bettr function than secondary healing. (True or false)
Answer. True
57. Skin grafting can spoil the cosmetic appearance. (True or false)
Answer. True
58. Carbuncles are seen commonly in nondiabetics. (Trueor false)
Answer. False
59. Mothers are carriers and fathers are suffrer in …………
Answer. Hemophilia
60. Universal tumor is the name given to …………
Answer. Lipoma
61. Neurotmesis involves rupture of both………………. and ……………….
Answer. Neuron sheath and axons
62. Line of demarcation is the feature of ……………….gangrene
Answer. Wet
63. Discoverer of system of human blood groups …………
Answer. Landsteiner
64. Edge of tubercular ulcers is……………….
Answer. Undermined
65. Consistency of metastatic lymph nodes is …………
Answer. Hard
66. Plastic surgery was invented in …………….(country).
Answer. India
67. Venous bleeding is ……………. in color and flws……………….
Answer. Dark in color and flws continuously
68. In lymphoma lymph nodes are ………………. in consistency.
Answer. Rubbery
69. Sharp instruments should not be sterilize by ……………….
Answer. Boiling
70. ……………… suffr from hemophilia while ………………transmit it.
Answer. Males suffr from hemophilia while females transmit it
71. Calcium and phosphate in blood and bones are regulated by ……………….
Answer. Calcitonin
72. …………………. is the most common site for keloid.
Answer. Nape of the Neck
73. …………………..is known as hydrocele of neck.
Answer. Serous cyst
74. Duct of parotid gland is known as……………..
Answer. Stensön’s duct
75. Branches of facial nerve are …………….. and………….. (any two).
Answer. Temporal and mandibular
76 Hilto n method is used for the treatment of ………………….
Answer. Abscess
77. Boil is also called as furuncle. True/False
Answer. True
78. Cleanincised surgical wound is healed by primary intension. True/False
Answer. True
79. Cold abscess is caused by tuberculosis. True/False
Answer. True
80. Abscess of peritonsillar space is called as……………….
Answer. Quinsy
81. Cystic hygroma is a brilliantly transilluminant swelling.
True/False
Answer. True
82. Edge of squamous cell carcinoma is…………………
Answer. Everted
83 Repair of cleft lip should be done at the age of …………………
Answer. 3 to 6 months
84. Cellulitis is commonly caused by the microorganism …………………
Answer. Streptococcus pyogenes
85. Hemophilia is caused by defiiency of…………….
Answer. Factor VIII
86. Tuberculous ulcer has a punched out edge. True/False
Answer. False
88. Thyroglossal cyst moves on deglutition. True/False
Answer. True
89. Consistency of tuberculous lymph node is hard. True/False
Answer. False
90. Granulomatous epulis is……………….in consistency.
Answer. Soft
91. 5 cardinal signs of inflmmation…………….
Answer. Rubor, Calor, Tumor, Dolor, Functio laesa
92. Gas gangrene is caused by……………………(Name of organism)
Answer. Clostridium perfringens
93. ……………..cranial nerves are affcted in plexiform neurofiromatosis.
Answer. 5th, 9th and 10th
94. Punched out edges are seen in………………….ulcer.
Answer. Syphilitic
95. Contusion is a type of closed wound. (True/False)
Answer. True
96. Keratocanthoma arising from………………
Answer. Pilosebaceous glands
97. Ranula is a mucus retention cyst……………..(True/False)
Answer. True
98. In autologous transfusion, patient’s own blood is used ……………….(True/False)
Answer. True
99. Crushed wounds are closed after debridement. True/False
Answer. False
100. PMMC flp is supplied by…………………
Answer. Thoracoacromial artery and its venae comitantes
Viva-Voce Questions For Practical Examination
1. What is an abscess?
Answer. It is a cavity which is filed with pus and is lined by a pyogenic membrane.
2. What is pyemic abscess?
Answer. In this, multiple abscesses are formed from the infected emboli in pyemia.
3. What is pyemia?
Answer. It is the condition where there is formation of secondary foci of suppuration in various body parts.
4. What is bacteremia?
Answer. It is the condition where the bacteria circulate in blood stream.
5. What is septicaemia?
Answer. It is the condition where multiple clinical manifestations arise as toxins are liberated by the bacteria in the blood stream.
6. What is toxemia?
Answer. It is the condition where toxins either derived from bacteria or from chemical circulate in the bloodstream.
7. What is the another name of gas gangrene?
Answer. Clostridial myonecrosis
8. Gas gangrene comes under which type of gangrene?
Answer. Moist gangrene
9. What is the most characteristic feature of gas gangrene?
Answer. There is presence of profuse discharge of brown, foul smelling flid in between sutures and crepitus is also present.
10. Name various organisms which leads to gas gangrene.
Answer. Clostridium welchii, Clostridium septicum, Clostridium histolyticum, Clostridium oedematiens
11. Name the exotoxins released by Clostridium tetani?
Answer. Tetanospasmin and Tetanolysin
12. How much is the incubation period of tetanus.
Answer. It is from 3 days to 3 weeks.
13. What is Tetanus neonatorum?
Answer. It is the contamination ofthe cut surface ofumbilical cord of neonate which causes spasm of respiratory muscles.
14. What is latent tetanus?
Answer. At times when wound are ignored Clostridium tetani rest in them for months and years but when suitable conditions come the bacteria multiply and tetanus develops.
15. Which is the earliest symptom of tetanus?
Answer. Trismus
16. What do you mean by risus sardonicus.
Answer. It is the anxious expression of the patient suffring from the tetanus.
17. Which is the most common form of actinomycosis?
Answer. Cervicofacial actinomycosis
18. In which disease, Leonine facies are seen.
Answer. Lepromatous leprosy
19. Name the peripheral nerve which is commonly affcted in leprosy.
Answer. Ulnar nerve
20. What is carbuncle.
Answer. Carbuncle is the infective gangrene of skin and subcutaneous tissue.
21. What is cellulitis?
Answer. It is the condition in which there is nonsuppurative spreading inflmmation of subcutaneous and fascial planes.
22. Name the microorganism which leads to cellulitis.
Answer. Streptococcus pyogenes
23. What is erysipelas?
Answer. It is the spreading inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues due to the infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.
24. Which is the characteristic sign of erysipelas?
Answer. Milian’s ear sign.
25. Defie cyst.
Answer. A pathological cavity having flid, semiflid or gaseous contents and which is not created by accumulation of pus.
26. What is a fracture?
Answer. It is the loss of continuity of bone.
27. Name the fracture occurring in the children.
Answer. Greenstick fracture
28. What is callus?
Answer. It is the new bone formed at the site of fracture.
29. What is neuropraxia?
Answer. It is the temporary physiological paralysis of nerve conduction.
30. What is axonotmesis?
Answer. It is the division ofnerve fiers or axons with intact nerve sheath.
31. What is neurotmesis?
Answer. In this, there is complete division of nerve fiers with sheath occurs.
32. What is an ulcer?
Answer. It is the break in continuity of the epithelium.
33. Name the parts of an ulcer.
Answer. Edge, margin, flor and base.
34. Which disease shows rolled out ulcer?
Answer. Squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma
35. Name the disease which consists of undermined ulcer.
Answer. Tuberculosis
36. What is cleft palate?
Answer. Cleft palate occur due to defect in fusion of lines between premaxilla and palatine processes of maxilla one on each side.
37. What is cleft lip?
Answer. Cleft lip occurs due to defect in fusion of median nasal process along with maxillary process.
38. Name the surgical treatment which is used for unilateral cleft lip repair.
Answer. Millard advancement flp
39. At what age cleft lip repair is done?
Answer. Between 3 to 6 months
40. What is rule of ten.
Answer. When baby is of 10 lbs weight, 10 week old and has 10 gm% of hemoglobin cleft lip repair is done.
41. Name the prosthetic device which covers palatal defects in patients having cleft palate.
Answer. Obturator
42. At what age cleft palate repair has to be done.
Answer. Between 12 to 15 months of age.
43. Name the classifiation which is represented symbolically as Y for cleft lip and cleft palate.
Answer. Kernahan classifiation
44. Which is the tumor known as universal tumor or ubiquitous tumor?
Answer. Lipoma
45. Which is the most common site of carcinoma of lip?
Answer. Vermilion border of lip
46. Name the carcinoma which does not metastatize.
Answer. Basal cell carcinoma
47. Which is the most common site for occurrence of carcinoma of tongue?
Answer. Lateral border of tongue
48. What is commando’s operation?
Answer. In this, there is hemiglossectomy with the block dissection of the lymph nodes.
49. Bedsore represents which type of an ulcer.
Answer. Trophic ulcer.
50. Which condition is known as quinsy?
Answer. Peritonsillar abscess
51. How are the lymph nodes in oral carcinoma?
Answer. Hard and fied lymph nodes
52. How are the lymph nodes in Hodgkin’s lymphoma?
Answer. Rubbery and elastic
53. How is the edge of ulcer in syphilis and aphthous ulcer.
Answer. Punched out
54. Name type of ameloblastoma which has maximum chances of turning into malignancy.
Answer. Granular cell ameloblastoma
55. Name the disease in which tracheostomy is mandatory.
Answer. Ludwig’s angina
56. While performing tracheostomy, which is the site of entrance inside the trachea.
Answer. Second and third tracheal ring is the site of entrance
57. Name the disease in which Trotter’s triad is seen.
Answer. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
58. Name the most common complication which arises after doing the tracheal intubation.
Answer. Sore throat is the most common complication.
59. Which is the major advantage of tracheostomy?
Answer. The procedure increases the dead space upto 50%.
60. What is the another name of Ringer’s lactate solution?
Answer. Hartmann’s solution.
61. At how much temperature does the blood is stored in the blood bank.
Answer. 4°C ± 2°C
62. How much is the shelf life of stored blood in blood banks.
Answer. 3 weeks
63. At how much temperature, does whole blood is stored in the blood bank.
Answer. 4 to 8°C
64. At what temperature does fresh frozen plasma is stored.
Answer. –40°C to –50°C
65. Name the method which is commonly used to stop the bleeding.
Answer. Applying the pressure over the injured area.
66. In how much time after the surgery reactionary hemorrhage occur.
Answer. In 24 hours of surgery.
67. Name the derivatives of plasma.
Answer. Plasma, platelet rich plasma, fibrinogen, albumin,cryoprecipitate.
68. What are the synthetically prepared solutions?
Answer. Fluorocarbons, gelatin, dextran.
69. How much is the blood transfusion rate?
Answer. It is 1 unit for 4 to 6 hours
70. Name the solution which is given to the patient who get burn.
Answer. Human albumin 4.5%
71. Which is the most common cause of the death in burn patient.
Answer. Oligemic shock
72. Name some of the topical agents used in cases of burn.
Answer. Silver nitrate, silver sulphadiazine, cerium nitrate
73. What are plasma expanders?
Answer. They are the high molecular weight substances which exert colloidal osmotic pressure and when they are infused intravenously, they retain flid in the vascular compartment, e.g. Dextran and human albumin
74. What is shock?
Answer. Shock is a state of poor perfusion with impaired cellular metabolism manifesting with severe pathophysiological abnormalities. It is due to circulatory collapse and tissue hypoxia.
75. Which type of graft is given in deep skin burns?
Answer. Split thickness graft.
76. What is an allograft?
Answer. It is the graft which is given from individual of same species.
77. What is a heterograft?
Answer. It is the graft taken from one specie to another species.
78. What is keloid?
Answer. Keloid is the defect in maturation and stabilization of collage firils. In this normal collagen bundles are absent.
79. What is Buerger’s disease?
Answer. Buerger’s disease is the inflmmation and thrombosis in small and medium-sized blood vessels, typically in the legs and leading to gangrene. It has been associated with smoking
80. Name the most common ulcer which occur in the leg.
Answer. Venous ulcer
81. Name the most common cause which leads to hypothyroidism.
Answer. Autoimmune thyroiditis
82. Name the cyst which moves while protruding the tongue.
Answer. Thyroglossal cyst
83. Where is thyroglossal cyst located?
Answer. Just near to the hyoid bone
84. Name the thyroid malignancy which occur most commonly.
Answer. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid.
85. What is ranula?
Answer. It is the cystic swelling which is present at the flor of mouth and is the retention cyst of sublingual gland
86. Name the salivary gland in which there is maximum chances of formation of stones.
Answer. Submandibular salivary gland.
87. What is the duct of parotid gland?
Answer. Stensen’s duct
88. What is the duct of submandibular duct known as.
Answer. Wharton’s duct
89. Name the most common parotid gland tumor.
Answer. Pleomorphic adenoma
90. What is an adenoma?
Answer. All the benign tumors which arises from the glandular epithelium are known as adenomas.
91. Where is pleomorphic adenoma located in parotid gland?
Answer. At the tail of parotid gland
92. Name the salivary gland tumor which gets spread surrounding the nerves.
Answer. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
93. What is the feature in diagnosis except biopsy which gives conformational diagnosis of Warthin’s tumor in comparison to other salivary gland tumors.
Answer. Warthin’s tumor shows hot spot in Scintiscan while other salivary tumors show cold spot.
94. Name the nerve which cannot get preserved, while doing the parotid surgery.
Answer. Facial nerve
95. Name the tumors which metastasize to the parotid gland.
Answer. Malignant melanoma and epidermoid carcinoma of skin
96. What is Sjögren’s syndrome?
Answer. It is the triad of xerostomia, Keratoconjunctivitis sicca and rheumatoid arthritis.
97. Name the route by which papillary carcinoma of thyroid spread and follicular carcinoma of thyroid spread.
Answer. Papillary carcinoma spread via lymphatic route while follicular carcinoma spreads via hematogenous route.
98. What is thyroid storm?
Answer. It is the thyrotoxic reaction which occurs under 3–4 days after thyroid surgery. This occur, if the thyrotoxic patient has not been brought down to euthyroid state before the thyroid surgery.
99. What is patey’s operation?
Answer. It is the superfiial parotidectomy
100. What is goiter.
Answer. Goiter is the enlargement of the thyroid gland.
101. Name the goiter which has maximum chances of undergoing malignancy.
Answer. Nodular goiter
102. Name some of the goitrogens.
Answer. Cabbage, cauliflwer, turnip, kale, sprouts. Antithyoid drugs, thiocyanate, etc.
103. In bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis, what is the lifesaving measure?
Answer. Immediate tracheostomy.
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