Pathology Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Pathology Multiple Choice Question And Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1. An example of negative staining is:

1. Gram’s staining
2. Fontana‘s staining
3. India ink preparation
4. Ziehl-Neelsen staining

Answer: 1. Gram’s staining

Question 2. Active immunity is not acquired by:

1. Infection
2. Vaccination
3. immunoglobulin transfer
4. Subclinical infection

Answer: 3. immunoglobulin transfer

Read And Learn More: Pathology Question And Answers

Question 3. The size and number of a bacterial cells are increased in the:

1. Lag phase A
2. Exponential phase
3. Acceleration phase
4. Stationary phase

Answer: 2. Exponential phase

“What are pathology multiple choice questions and why are they important?”

Question 4. Rapid diagnosis of tuberculosis is possible with:

1. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
2. King-Yong stain
3. Auramine-Rhodamine stain
4. Giemsa stain

Answer: 1. Ziehl-Neelsen stain

Question 5. Treponema pallidum is very difficult to demonstrate in:

1. Chancre
2. Maculopapular rash
3. Gumma
4. Mucosal patch

Answer: 3. Gumma

“Understanding the role of MCQs in pathology exam preparation”

Question 6. In human sera, kappa and lambda chains occur in the ratio of:

1. 1: 1
2. 1: 2
3. 2: 1
4. 1: 4

Answer: 3.2: 1

“How do pathology MCQs help in mastering key concepts?”

Question 7. Gas gangrene is caused by:

1. Cl. perfringens
2. Cl. welchii
3. Cl. tetani
4. Cl. botulinum

Answer: 1. Cl. perfringens

Question 8. Hepatitis B is not transmitted by:

1. Blood transfusion
2. Feco-oral route
3. Congenital transmission
4. Sexual contact

Answer: 2. Feco-oral route

Objective questions in pathology

Question 9. The best laboratory method to diagnoseAIDS infection is:

1. RlA
2. ELISA
3. Western blot test
4. Complement fiation test

Answer: 3. Western blot test

Question 10. In the first week typhoid is diagnosed by:

1. Widal test
2. Stool culture
3. Urine culture
4. Blood culture

Answer: 1. Widal test

“Importance of practicing pathology MCQs for better exam outcomes”

Question 11. The most specific antigen of Salmonella typhi:

1. ‘H’ antigen
2. ‘O’ antigen
3. ‘M’ antigen
4. ‘N’ antigen

Answer: 2. ‘O’ antigen

Question 12. Which of the following is a premalignant condition?

1. Hypertrophy
2. Hyperplasia
3. Dysplasia
4. Metaplasia

Answer: 3. Dysplasia

Question 13. Oral thrush is associated with:

1. Actinomycosis
2. Candida albicans
3. Staphylococci
4. Clostridia tetani

Answer: 2. Candida albicans

Question 14. Infarction represents:

1. Coagulative necrosis
2. Caseation necrosis
3. Apoptosis
4. Fibrinoid necrosis

Answer: 1. Coagulative necrosis

Question 15. Which of the following is not a benign tumor?

1. Lipoma
2. Myeloma
3. Papilloma
4. Hemangioma

Answer: 2. Myeloma

Question 16. Gram-positive organisms show all of the following characteristics except:

1. Resist decolorization with acetone
2. Resist decolorization with alcohol
3. Resist decolorization with acid
4. Stained as dark purple

Answer: 3. Resist decolorization with acid

“Common challenges in answering pathology multiple choice questions”

Question 17. Epitheliod cells in tubercular granuloma are derived from:

1. Neutrophils
2. Epithelial cells
3. Monocytes
4. Lymphocytes

Answer: 3. Monocytes

Question 18. The stain of choice for Treponema pallidum is:

1. Gram stain
2. AFB stain
3. Silver stain
4. Leishman stain

Answer: 3. Silver stain

Question 19. An abscess is a collection of:

1. Dead cells
2. Neutrophils
3. Lymphocytes
4. Monocytes

Answer: 2. Neutrophils

Question 20. The Tuberculin test is an example of:

1. Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction
2. Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction
3. Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction
4. Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction

Answer: 4. Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction

Question 21. Tubercular granuloma shows:

1. Langerhans giant cell
2. Foreign body giant cell
3. Touton giant cell
4. Langhans giant cell

Answer: 4. Langhans giant cell

Question 22. The stain of choice for amyloid is:

1. H and E
2. Congo red
3. Crystal violet
4. PAS

Answer: 2. Congo red

“Why is consistent practice critical for pathology MCQ success?”

Question 23. Rodent ulcer is synonymous with:

1. Squamous cell carcinoma
2. Adenocarcinoma
3. Basal cell carcinoma
4. Sarcoma

Answer: 3. Basal cell carcinoma

Question 24. Which of the following hepatotropic virus is a DNA virus?

1. HAV
2. HBV
3. HCV
4. HEV

Answer: 2. HBV

Question 25. Parasite inflammation is characterized by:

1. Neutrophils
2. Lymphocytes
3. Eosinophils
4. Plasma cells

Answer: 1. Neutrophils

Question 26. Soft tubercle show:

1. Coagulative necrosis
2. Caseation necrosis
3. Liquefactive necrosis
4. Not necrosis

Answer: 2. Caseation necrosis

Question 27. In syphilis, gumma is seen at:

1. Primary syphilis
2. Secondary syphilis
3. Tertiary syphilis
4. All of the above

Answer: 3. Tertiary syphilis

Question 28. Typhoid ulcers are located at:

1. Stomach
2. Payer’s patches
3. Small intestine
4. Large intestine

Answer: 3. Small intestine

Question 29. Wet gangrene is commonly observed at:

1. Liver
2. Spleen
3. Intestine
4. Bones

Answer: 3. Intestine

Question 30. Sarcomas are commonly spread by:

1. Lymphatics
2. Hematogenous
3. Both a and b
4. None of these

Answer: 2. Hematogenous

“Steps to prepare effectively for pathology MCQ exams”

Question 31. The Gram positivity of bacteria depends upon:

1. The pore size of bacteria
2. Presence of mycolic acid
3. Presence of dipicolinic acid
4. Presence of teichoic acid

Answer: 4. Presence of teichoic acid

Question 32. The organ of adhesion of bacteria is:

1. Capsule
2. Slime
3. Flagella
4. Fimbriae

Answer: 4. Fimbriae

Question 33. The primary immune response is mediated by:

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answer: 4. IgM

Question 34. Anaphylaxis is mediated by:

1. Cytotoxic antibodies
2. Chemotactic factors
3. Immune complexes
4. Incomplete antibodies

Answer: 2. Chemotactic factors

Question 35. Graves disease is a:

1. Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction
2. Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction
3. Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction
4. Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction

Answer: 2. Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction

Question 36. In typhoid, the Widal test detects:

1. O antigen
2. H antigen
3. W antigen
4. Both O and H antigen

Answer: 4. Both O and H antigen

Question 37. The generation time of tuberculous bacillus:

1. 15 days
2. 15 min
3. 15 hours
4. 15 seconds

Answer: 3. 15 hours

Question 38. The serological marker of acute hepatitis B infection is:

1. HBsAg + HBeAg
2. HBsAg + Core antibody
3. HBsAg
4. HBcAg

Answer: 3. HBsAg

Question 39. Which of the following is false about HIV?

1. It is a DNA virus
2. It attacks CD4 cells
3. Macrophages are the reservoir
4. It reverses CD4 : CD8 ratio

Answer: 1. It is a DNA virus

“Role of question banks in improving pathology MCQ scores”

Question 40. All the following are characteristic opportunistic infections in AIDS except:

1. Cryptosporidium
2. Kaposi sarcoma
3. M. avium intracellulare
4. Aspergillosis

Answer: 4. Aspergillosis

Question 41. All true about dystrophic calcification except:

1. Calcium deposition occurs in non-viable tissues
2. Psammoma bodies
3. Calcium deposition occurs in vital tissue
4. Calcium metabolism is normal

Answer: 3. Calcium deposition occurs in vital tissue

Question 42. Histologic hallmarks of chronic inflammation are all except:

1. Infiltration of mononuclear cells
2. Proliferation of fibroblasts
3. Decreased fibrosis
4. Tissue destruction

Answer: 3. Decreased fibrosis

Question 43. The pathophysiologic category of edema is:

1. Increased hydrostatic pressure
2. Increased oncotic pressure of plasma
3. Decreased tubular absorption of sodium
4. Decreased renin-angiotensin-aldosterone secretion

Answer: 1. Increased hydrostatic pressure

Question 44. Prototype disorder of immune complex disease:

1. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
2. Transplant rejection
3. Contact dermatitis
4. Arthus reaction

Answer: 4. Arthus reaction

Question 45. Effects of childhood scurvy are all except:

1. Rosary
2. Skeletal deformity does not occur
3. Ecchymosis
4. Gingival hemorrhage

Answer: 1. Rosary

“How do mock tests enhance pathology MCQ performance?”

Question 46. Feature of iron deficiency anemia is:

1. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
2. Total plasma iron-binding capacity is normal
3. Atrophic glossitis
4. Macropolycyte

Answer: 1. Microcytic hypochromic anemia

Question 47. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTC) is characterized by all except:

1. Transcent neurologic defect
2. Renal failure
3. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
4. Thrombocytosis

Answer: 4. Thrombocytosis

Question 48. Associated tumor of hep adenovirus is:

1. Burkitts lymphoma
2. Liver cancer
3. Leukemia
4. Kaposi sarcoma

Answer: 2. Liver cancer

Question 49. True about the pathogenesis of Type 1 diabetes mellitus is:

1. Genetic susceptibility
2. Derangement in insulin secretion
3. Insulin resistance
4. Decreased number of insulin receptors

Answer: 1. Genetic susceptibility

Question 50. Major signs of AIDS except:

1. Weight loss > 10% of body weight
2. Chronic diarrhea of > 1 month
3. Prolonged fever > 1 month
4. Persistent cough > 1 month

Answer: 4. Persistent cough > 1 month

Question 51. Coagulative necrosis is found in:

1. Anemia
2. Tuberculosis
3. Sarcoidosis
4. Gangrene

Answer: 4. Gangrene

“Early warning signs of poor preparation for pathology exams”

Question 52. Wound contraction is mediated by:

1. Myofibroblasts
2. Epithelial cells
3. Collagen
4. Elastin

Answer: 1. Myofibroblasts

Question 53. Langerhans cells are:

1. Antigen-presenting cells
2. Phagocytic cells
3. Autoimmune cells
4. Cells in acute infection

Answer: 1. Antigen-presenting cells

Question 54. Programmed cell death is called:

1. Apoptosis
2. Necrosis
3. Degeneration
4. Calcification

Answer: 1. Apoptosis

Question 55. True about cell aging:

1. Free radical injury
2. Mitochondria increased
3. Lipofuscin accumulation in cell
4. Size increases

Answer: 1. Free radical injury

Question 56. The granulomatous inflammatory reaction is caused by all except:

1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
2. Mycobacterium leprae
3. Yersinia pestis
4. Mycoplasma

Answer: 4. Mycoplasma

“Asymptomatic vs symptomatic effects of inadequate study habits”

Question 57. All of the following malignancies are associated with HIV ‘except‘:

1. Kaposi’s sarcoma
2. Adenocarcinoma
3. Non-Hodgkin‘s lymphoma
4. Astrocytoma gastric

Answer: 2. Adenocarcinoma

58. Reversal loss of polarity with abnormality in size and shape of the cell is known as:

1. Metaplasia
2. Dysplasia
3. Hyperplasia
4. Anaplasia

Answer: 2. Dysplasia

Question 59. Dystrophic calcification is seen in:

1. Rickets
2. Hyperparathyroidism
3. Atheromatous plaque
4. Vitamin A intoxication

Answer: 3. Atheromatous plaque

Question 60. The most commonly employed stain for amyloidosis is:

1. Congo red and polarized light
2. Congo red and nonpolarized light
3. Sudan black
4. Giemsa stain

Answer: 1. Congo red and polarized light

Question 61. Following are the nuclear changes of necrosis:

1. Hyperchromasia
2. Pyknosis
3. Karyorrhexis
4. Karyolysis

Answer: 1. Hyperchromasia

Question 62. Mallory hyaline bodies are a type of:

1. Fatt change
2. Glycogen degeneration
3. Hyaline change
4. Proteins degeneration

Answer: 3. Hyaline change

Question 63. Wear and tear pigment is:

1. Melanin
2. Lipofuscin
3. Hemosiderin
4. Iron pigment

Answer: 2. Lipofuscin

Question 64. All are true about metastatic calcification except:

1. Deposited in nonviable tissue
2. Deposited in viable tissue
3. Calcium metabolism is deranged
4. Associated with parathyroid hyperplasia

Answer: 1. Deposited in nonviable tissue

Question 65. The cells which continuously replicate are:

1. Stem cells
2. Labile cells
3. Stable cells
4. Permanent cells

Answer: 1. Stem cells

“Can targeted practice improve pathology MCQ accuracy?”

Question 66. Hepar located is seen in which type of syphilis:

1. Primary
2. Secondary
3. Tertiary
4. Congenital

Answer: 3. Tertiary

Question 67. Hemorrhagic infarct is seen in:

1. Kidney
2. Lung
3. Spleen
4. Heart

Answer: 2. Lung

Question 68. Metastasis is seen in all of the following tumors EXCEPT:

1. Osteosarcoma
2. Glioma
3. Mesothelioma
4. Neuroblastoma

Answer: 2. Glioma

Question 69. In iron deficiency anemia TIBC is:

1. Low
2. Normal
3. High
4. Borderline

Answer: 3. High

Question 70. Navicular cells in PAP smear are:

1. Superficial squamous cells
2. Intermediate squamous cells
3. Parabasal squamous cells
4. Basal squamous cells

Answer: 2. Intermediate squamous cells

Question 71. The following are the types of necrosis:

1. Coagulative
2. Caseous
3. Zenker’s
4. Liquefactive

Answer: 3. Zenker’s

Question 72. Russel bodies are seen in:

1. Neutrophils
2. Plasma cells
3. Lymphocytes
4. Monocytes

Answer: 2. Plasma cells

Question 73. Pigments deposited in brown atrophy of the heart are:

1. Melanin
2. Hemosiderin
3. Lipofuscin
4. Iron pigment

Answer: 3. Lipofuscin

Question 74. All are true about dystrophic calcification:

1. Deposited in dead tissue
2. Deposited in living tissue
3. Calcium metabolism is normal
4. Formation of psammoma bodies

Answer: 2. Deposited in living tissue

Question 75. The cells which do not multiply are:

1. Labile cells
2. Permanent cells
3. Stable cells
4. Stem cells

Answer: 2. Permanent cells

“Steps to master common pathology subtopics through MCQs”

Question 76. The type of hypersensitivity involved in the formation of granuloma is:

1. Type 1
2. Type 2
3. Type 3
4. Type 4

Answer: 4. Type 4

Question 77. Following are the cells present in tuberculous granuloma except:

1. Langhans giant cells
2. Epithelioid cells
3. Lymphocytes
4. Aschof cells

Answer: 4. Aschof cells

Question 78. Xeroderma pigmentosum will lead to the following cancers:

1. Basal cell carcinoma
2. Sweat gland carcinoma
3. Malignant melanoma
4. Squamous cell carcinoma

Answer: 2. Sweat gland carcinoma

Question 79. Folate circulates in plasma as:

1. Methyl tetrahydrofolate
2. Polyglutamate
3. Monoglutamate
4. Diglutamate

Answer: 3. Monoglutamate

Question 80. Pappenheimer bodies are found in:

1. Sideroblasts
2. Siderocytes
3. Late normoblasts
4. Intermediate normoblasts

Answer: 2. Siderocytes

Question 81. Auer rods are seen in:

1. AML
2. ALL
3. CLL
4. CML

Answer: 1. AML

Question 82. Which of the following is not a malignant tumor:

1. Lymphoma
2. Chondroma
3. Melanoma
4. Hepatoma

Answer: 2. Chondroma

Question 83. The virus associated with cervical cancer is:

1. EBV
2. HSV
3. HPV
4. HIV

Answer: 3. HPV

Question 84. Miliary tuberculosis is:

1. Local dissemination
2. Lymphatic obstruction
3. Hematogenous dissemination
4. Extension from lung to plural

Answer: 3. Hematogenous dissemination

“Role of histopathology MCQs in understanding tissue diseases”

Question 85. Infarcts are rarely seen in:

1. Spleen
2. Lung
3. Kidney
4. Liver

Answer: 4. Liver

Question 86. Which is not the component of the Virchow triad for thrombosis?

1. Endothelial injury
2. Lymphatic obstruction
3. Alteration in blood flow
4. Alteration in blood component

Answer: 2. Lymphatic obstruction

Question 87. The key cell of chronic inflammation is:

1. Lymphocyte
2. Plasma cell
3. Monocyte
4. Eosinophil

Answer: 1. Lymphocyte

Question 88. Large bulky friable vegetation is seen in:

1. Rheumatic heart disease
2. Infective endocarditis
3. Systemic lupus erythematosus
4. Atherosclerosis

Answer: 2. Infective endocarditis

Question 89. The cell-mediated hypersensitivity is initiated by:

1. T cells
2. B cells
3. Monocytes
4. NK cells

Answer: 1. T cells

Question 90. Which is not a differential diagnosis for hypochromic microcytic anemia?

1. Iron deficiency anemia
2. Thalassemia minor
3. Megaloblastic anemia
4. Anemia of chronic disorders

Answer: 3. Megaloblastic anemia

Question 91. Apoptosis is:

1. Programmed cell death
2. Ischemic necrosis
3. Hypoxic necrosis
4. Hyaline change

Answer: 1. Programmed cell death

Question 92. Epithelioid cells are derived from:

1. Neutrophils
2. Lymphocyte
3. Monocyte
4. Eosinophils

Answer: 3. Monocyte

Question 93. Which of the following oncogenic viruses is associated with a pilocytic change in epithelium?

1. EBV
2. HSV
3. HPV
4. HIV

Answer: 3. HPV

“How do hematology MCQs address blood disorders?”

Question 94. Hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in:

1. Megaloblastic anemia
2. Iron deficiency anemia
3. Acute leukemia
4. Chronic leukemia

Answer: 1. Megaloblastic anemia

Question 95. The most common oral infection in AIDS:

1. Candida
2. Cryptococcus
3. Histoplasmosis
4. Aspergillosis

Answer: 1. Candida

Question 96. The necrosis in myocardial infarction is:

1. Ischemic necrosis
2. Liquefactive necrosis
3. Fat necrosis
4. Coagulative necrosis

Answer: 4. Coagulative necrosis

Question 97. Reed­Sternberg giant cells are seen in:

1. Tuberculosis
2. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
3. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
4. Leukemia

Answer: 2. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

Question 98. Leiomyoma arises from:

1. Uterus
2. Intestine
3. Smooth muscle
4. Fibrous tissue

Answer: 3. Smooth muscle

Question 99. The most common recurrent benign tumor of the salivary gland:

1. Pleomorphic adenoma
2. Oncocytic adenoma
3. Basal cell adenoma
4. Lymphoepithelioma

Answer: 1. Pleomorphic adenoma

Question  100. The test which assesses extrinsic and common coagulation pathways is:

1. BT
2. CT
3. PT
4. Platelet count

Answer: 2. CT

Question 101. Which of the following type of necrosis is grossly opaque and chalky white?

1. Coagulation necrosis
2. Liquefaction necrosis
3. Caseous necrosis
4. Fat necrosis

Answer: 4. Fat necrosis

“Early warning signs of knowledge gaps in pathology subtopics”

Question 102. Dystrophic calcification is most closely associated with:

1. Hypercalcemia
2. Necrosis
3. Chronic irritation
4. Diminished blood flow

Answer: 2. Necrosis

Question 103. Which of the following terms refers to a malignant tumor of mesenchymal origin?

1. Carcinoma
2. Hepatoma
3. Hematoma
4. Sarcoma

Answer: 4. Sarcoma

Question 104. Which of the following is a reversible change:

1. Karyorrhexis
2. Pyknosis
3. Karyolysis
4. Swelling of endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: 4. Swelling of endoplasmic reticulum

Question 105. Grading of cancer is based on which of the following statements:

1. Size of the primary tumor
2. Spread of cancer cells to regional lymph nodes
3. The presence of blood-borne metastasis
4. Degree of differentiation of tumor cells, anaplasia, and number of mitoses

Answer: 4. Degree of differentiation of tumor cells, anaplasia, and number of mitoses

Question 106. Which of the following is not a malignant tumor?

1. Glioma
2. Lymphoma
3. Melanoma
4. Leiomyoma

Answer: 4. Leiomyoma

Question 107. If a rare disorder with early onset in life is inherited in such a way that male and female off springs are equally affected, only homozygous persons are affected, then the mode of inheritance would be:

1. Autosomal dominant
2. Autosomal recessive
3. X- linked dominant
4. X- linked recessive

Answer: 2. Autosomal recessive

Question 108. The most characteristic feature of granulation tissue is:

1. Growth of fibroblasts and new capillaries
2. The resemblance of a granuloma
3. The character of the exudates
4. The granular scar that results

Answer: 1. Growth of fibroblasts and new capillaries

Question 109. Morphologic changes seen in chronic non­specifi inflammation include an increase in:

1. Neutrophils, lymphocytes, and liquefaction necrosis
2. Neutrophils, macrophages, and fibrosis
3. Lymphocytes, plasma cells, and fibrosis
4. Giant cells, macrophages, and coagulative necrosis

Answer: 3. Lymphocytes, plasma cells, and fibrosis

“Asymptomatic vs symptomatic effects of ignoring weak areas”

Question 110. Which of the following is the hallmark of acute inflammation?

1. Neutrophils
2. Connective tissue
3. Macrophages
4. Granulation tissue

Answer: 1. Neutrophils

Question 111. Phagocytosis was discovered by:

1. Robert Koch
2. Burnet
3. Edward Jenner
4. Mechnikov

Answer: 4. Mechnikov

Question 112. Which of the following is not a malignant tumor?

1. Glioma
2. Lymphoma
3. Melanoma
4. Leiomyoma

Answer: 4. Leiomyoma

Question 113. Dartling movements are seen in:

1. Salmonella
2. Vibrio
3. Treponema
4. Clostridium

Answer: 2. Vibrio

Question 114. If a rare disorder with early onset in life is inherited in such a way that male and female offsprings both are equally affected, only homozygous persons are affected, then the mode of inheritance would be:

1. Autosomal dominant
2. Autosomal recessive
3. X-linked dominant
4. X-linked recessive

Answer: 2. Autosomal recessive

Question 115. The most characteristic feature of granulation tissue is:

1. Growth of fibroblasts and new capillaries
2. Resemblance to granuloma
3. Character of exudates
4. The granular scar that results

Answer: 1. Growth of fibroblasts and new capillaries

Question 116. Morphologic changes seen in chronic non­specifi inflammation include an increase in:

1. Neutrophils, lymphocytes, and liquefaction necrosis
2. Neutrophils, macrophages, and fibrosis
3. Lymphocyte, plasma cell, and fibrosis
4. Giant cells, macrophages, and coagulative necrosis

Answer: 3. Lymphocyte, plasma cell, and fibrosis

Question 117. Double-stranded RNA is seen in:

1. Retrovirus
2. HIV virus
3. Reovirus
4. Rhabdovirus

Answer: 3. Reovirus

“Can focused MCQ practice strengthen pathology subtopic knowledge?”

Question 118. Dystrophic calcification is most closely associated with:

1. Hypercalcemia
2. Necrosis
3. Chronic irritation
4. Diminished blood flow

Answer: 2. Necrosis

Question 119. Which of the following types of necrosis is grossly opaque and chalky white?

1. Coagulation necrosis
2. Liquefaction necrosis
3. Caseous necrosis
4. Fat necrosis

Answer: 4. Fat necrosis

Question 120. The most reliable methods for diagnosis of primary syphilis are:

1. VDRL test
2. FTA-ABS
3. Microhemagglutinine
4. Darkfield examination of chancre

Answer: 3. Microhemagglutinine

Question 121. Caseous necrosis is seen in:

1. TB
2. Sarcoidosis
3. Gangrene
4. Fungal infection

Answer: 1. TB

Question 122. Dystrophic calcification is seen in:

1. Atheroma
2. Paget’s disease
3. Renal osteodystrophy
4. Milk alkali syndrome

Answer: 1. Atheroma

Question 123. Free radicals are generated by all except:

1. Superoxide
2. NADPH oxide
3. Myeloperoxidase
4. None of these

Answer: 4. None of these

Question 124. The earliest transient change following tissue injury will be:

1. Neutropenia
2. Neutrophilia
3. Monocytosis
4. Lymphocytosis

Answer: 2. Neutrophilia

Question 125. The role of bradykinin in the process of inflammation is:

1. Vasoconstriction
2. Bronchodilatation
3. Pain
4. Increased vascular permeability

Answer: 4. Increased vascular permeability

Question 126. Sure sign of malignancy is:

1. Mitosis
2. Polychromasia
3. Nuclear pleomorphism
4. Metastasis

Answer: 4. Metastasis

“Steps to educate students about pathology MCQ strategies”

Question 127. The storage form of iron is:

1. Ferritin
2. Transferrin
3. Hepcidin
4. Ferroprotein

Answer: 1. Ferritin

Question 128. The type of anemia in iron deficiency is:

1. Microcytic
2. Macrocytic
3. Normocytic
4. All of the above

Answer: 1. Microcytic

Question 129. Hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in:

1. Thalassemia
2. Iron deficiency
3. Megaloblastic anemia
4. All of the above

Answer: 3. Megaloblastic anemia

Question 130. FIGLU test is done for:

1. Iron deficiency
2. Folic acid deficiency
3. Thiamine deficiency
4. Riboflavin deficiency

Answer: 2. Folic acid deficiency

 

Fill In The Blanks

 

Question 1. Eosinophilia is common in disease ———-.
Answer: Allergic conditions and Parasitic infestations

Question 2. Prussian blue reaction is positive for pigment ………….
Answer: Hemosiderin pigment

Question 3. Liquefaction necrosis is usually seen in …………………
Answer: Abscess cavity

Question 4. RBCs in iron deficiency anemia are ………………..
Answer: Microcytic hypochromic

Question 5. Langhans giant cells are seen only in ………………..
Answer: Tuberculosis and sarcoidosis

 

Viva-Voce Questions For Practical Examination

 

Question 1. Name the term used for maintenance of a constant internal environment.
Answer: Homeostasis

Question 2. Name the term which is used for the cell which undergoes excessive physiologic stress.
Answer: Adaptation

Question 3. Name the term used when the cell’s adaptive capacity exceeds.
Answer: Cell injury

Question 4. Name the most common morphologic pattern of cell death.
Answer: Coagulative necrosis

Question 5. During cell injury hypoxia produces its effect by acting on which pathway.
Answer: Aerobic oxidative respiration

Question 6. If glucose got sufficiently concentrated it can lead to cell injury by acting on which phenomenon.
Answer: Osmotic homeostasis

Question 7. Name the compound secreted by Clostridium perfringens that causes cell injury.
Answer: Phospholipids

Question 8. Blebs and Myelin figures are associated with which of the phenomenon?
Answer: Reversible cell injury

Question 9. Which injury represents calcium-rich density?
Answer: Irreversible cellular injury

Question 10. After how much time can irreversible cell injury be seen after ischemia?
Answer: 30 to 40 min

Question 11. Name the central factor in the pathogenesis of irreversible injury.
Answer: Cell membrane damage

Question 12. What is emerging as the first common pathway of tissue damage in chemical and radiation injury?
Answer: Free radicals

“Role of counseling in reducing pathology MCQ exam anxiety”

Question 13. Mercuric chloride induces cell damage by binding with which groups on the cell membrane.
Answer: Sulfhydryl group

Question 14. Name the organ on which carbon tetrachloride principally acts.
Answer: Liver

Question 15. Which is the most common soft tissue tumor?
Answer: Lipoma

Question 16. Name the example of injury caused by free radicals over the years and responsible for certain aspects of cellular aging.
Answer: Lipofuscin

Question 17. Which is the first manifestation of almost all forms of cell injury?
Answer: Cloudy swelling

Question 18. Hydropic change and vacuolar degeneration are all seen in which type of injury.
Answer: Reversible

Question 19. Denaturation of proteins is seen in which type of necrosis.
Answer: Coagulative necrosis

Question 20. Enzymatic digestion of cells is seen in which type of necrosis.
Answer: Liquefactive necrosis

Question 21. In which condition the basophilia of chromatin fades?
Answer: Karyolysis

Question 22. Name the condition characterized by nuclear shrinkage and basophilia.
Answer: Pyknosis

Question 23. What is nuclear fragmentation known as?
Answer: Karyorrhexis

Question 24. Which necrosis is characterized by focal bacterial infections?
Answer: Liquefactive necrosis

Question 25. What are the councilman bodies found in viral hepatitis?
Answer: Apoptotic cell fragments

Question 26. Name the disease in which mega mitochondria are seen.
Answer: Alcoholic liver disease.

Question 27. Mallory’s body is characteristically seen in which disease.
Answer: Alcoholic liver disease

Question 28. Which disease is caused by a chronic excess of glucocorticoids, mostly cortisol?
Answer: Cushing’s syndrome

Question 29. Prussian blue stain is used to visualize which compound.
Answer: Iron

Question 30. Name the pigment which is associated with brown atrophy.
Answer: Lipofuscin

Question 31. Name the organ which shows both hypertrophy and hyperplasia.
Answer: Uterus

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Question 32. Patients with hyperplasia of the endometrium are at an increased risk of developing this disease.
Answer: Endometrial cancer

Question 33. Name the reversible cell change in which the adult cell type is replaced by another adult cell type.
Answer: Metaplasia

Question 34. Name the vitamin whose deficiency induces squamous metaplasia in the respiratory epithelium.
Answer: Vitamin A

Question 35. Name the type of calcification which occurs despite normal serum levels of calcium and in the absence of derangements in calcium metabolism.
Answer: Dystrophic calcification

Question 36. Name the calcification commonly developed in damaged heart valves.
Answer: Dystropic Tropic

Question 37. Name the calcification that occurs when there is hypercalcemia.
Answer: Metastatic calcification

Question 38. Name the scientist who had given the terms calor, rubor, tumor, and dolor.
Answer: Celsus

Question 39. Name the scientist who had given the terms calor, rubor, tumor, dolor, and function laksa were given by.
Answer: Virchow

Question 40. What is the hallmark of early hemodynamic changes in acute inflammation?
Answer: Increase in the blood flow

Question 41. In most types of acute inflammation which cells emigrate first and which cells emigrate later?
Answer: Neutrophils emigrate first and monocyte emigrate later

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Question 42. Which cell is the richest source of histamine?
Answer: Mast cell

Question 43. Name the cell which releases serotonin (a vasoactive mediator).
Answer: Platelets

Question 44. Which is known as anaphylotoxin.
Answer: C3a, C5a

Question 45. Name the part of a cell in which arachidonic acid is present in large amounts.
Answer: Cell membrane

Question 46. Name the cells which produce cytokines.
Answer: Activated lymphocytes and macrophages

Question 47. Name the effect by which cytokine acts on cells.
Answer: Autocrine, paracrine and endocrine

Question 48. Which component is largely responsible for fever seen in acute inflammation?
Answer: Interleukin 1

Question 49. What is the hallmark of chronic inflammation?
Answer: Tissue destruction

Question 50. Name the interferon is a major stimulator of monocytes and macrophages.
Answer: Gumma

Question 51. TB, syphilis, leprosy, cat scratch disease, schistosomiasis, silicosis, berylliosis, and sarcoidosis have common characteristics.
Answer: Granulomatous inflammation

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Question 52. Name the component which is characteristic of inflammation in body cavities such as pericardium and pleura.
Answer: Fibrinous exudate

Question 53. What does a simple boil know as?
Answer: Furuncle

Question 54. Name the bacterial infection which causes leukopenia.
Answer: Typhoid

Question 55. Name the growth factor which has the ability to induce all the steps necessary for angiogenesis.
Answer: Fibroblast growth factor

Question 56. Which tissue is the hallmark of healing?
Answer: Granulation tissue

Question 57. Name the feature that most clearly differentiates primary from secondary healing.
Answer: Wound contraction

Question 58. Which is the single most important cause of delay in healing?
Answer: Infection

Question 59. Which is often the terminal event in most forms of heart disease?
Answer: Pulmonary edema

Question 60. Subcutaneous edema of the lower parts of the body is a prominent manifestation of cardiac failure particularly failure of which ventricle.
Answer: Right ventricle

Question 61. Which is one of the most reliable postmortem indicators of left ventricular cardiac failure?
Answer: Chronic passive congestion of the lungs

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Question 62. Name the minute hemorrhages into the skin mucous membrane or serosal surfaces.
Answer: Petechiae

Question 63. Lines of Zahn are present in which type of thrombi?
Answer: Arterial thrombi

Question 64. Name the organ from which natural thrombi usually arise.
Answer: Heart

Question 65. Which organ does venous thrombi affect most commonly?
Answer: Lower extremities

Question 66. Name the sign which occurs during predisposition to venous thrombosis in any of the veins of the body in patients with visceral cancer.
Answer: Trousseau’s sign

Question 67. Name the condition to which patients are at high­risk who are taking oral contraceptives containing at least 50 µg of estrogen.
Answer: Thrombosis

Question 68. What does definition syndrome or consumption coagulopathy is known as?
Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation

Question 69. What refers to the occlusion of some parts of the cardiovascular system by the impaction of some mass transported to the site through the bloodstream?
Answer: Embolism

Question 70. Caissons disease or decompression sickness is which form of embolism.
Answer: Gas

Question 71. Name the area of ischemic necrosis within a tissue or an organ produced by occlusion of either its arterial or its venous drainage.
Answer: Infarction

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Question 72. For how much time do neurons of the CNS undergo irreversible damage when deprived of their blood supply?
Answer: 3 to 4 min

Question 73. Which condition is associated with low cardiac output hypotension, impaired tissue perfusion, and cellular hypoxia?
Answer: Shock

Question 74. The gene for neurofibromatosis is located on which chromosome?
Answer: 17

Question 75. Name the single gene defects.
Answer: Mutation

Question 76. Which syndrome shows fragmentation of elastic tissue?
Answer: Marfan’s syndrome

Question 77. Where does the endogenous synthesis of cholesterol and LDL begin?
Answer: Liver

Question 78. Where do the Lisch nodules present?
Answer: Neurofibromatosis

Question 79. Which enzyme deficiency causes albinism?
Answer: Tyrosinase

Question 80. What does the wrinkled tissue paper appearance of the cytoplasm is suggestive of?
Answer: Gaucher’s disease

Question 81. Name the joint commonly involved in gout.
Answer: Great Toe

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Question 82. Which is organ commonly involved in gout?
Answer: Kidney

Question 83. Name the enzyme deficient in Ehlers­Danlos syndromes.
Answer: Lysyl hydroxylase

Question 84. Which is the most common chromosomal disorder?
Answer: Down’s syndrome

Question 85. Which syndrome shows “Mongolian idiocy”?
Answer: Down’s syndrome

Question 86. What is Trisomy 21?
Answer: Down’s syndrome

Question 87. What is Trisomy 18?
Answer: Edward’s syndrome

Question 88. What is Trisomy 13?
Answer: Patau’s syndrome

Question 89. 47 XXY is which syndrome.
Answer: Klinefelter‘s syndrome

Question 90. Name female hypogonadism.
Answer: Turner’s syndrome

Question 91. Which cells are the mediators of cellular immunity?
Answer: T Lymphocytes

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Question 92. What is the normal healthy Individual CD4:CD8 ratio?
Answer: 2:1

Question 93. On antigenic stimulation B cells form which cells.
Answer: Plasma cells

Question 94. What are the dendritic cells found?
Answer: Lymphoid tissue

Question 95. Where are the Langerhans cells seen?
Answer: Epidermis

Question 96. Which cells are the first line of defense against neoplastic on virus infected cells?
Answer: Natural killer cells

Question 97. Which antibody mediates Type I reaction in humans?
Answer: IgE

Question 98. Goodpasture’s syndrome represents which type of hypersensitivity.
Answer: Cytotoxic

Question 99. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction do transfusion reactions and Rhesus incompatibility present?
Answer: Complement-mediated cytotoxicity

Question 100. Serum sickness is an example of this type of hypersensitivity.
Answer: Type 3 systemic immune complex

Question 101. Arthus’ reaction is an example of this type of hypersensitivity.
Answer: Type 3 local immune complex

Question 102. Name a classical example of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction test.
Answer: Tuberculin

Question 103. Which interferon is the most important mediator of delayed hypersensitivity?
Answer: Gumma

Question 104. Which is the most frequently transplanted solid organ?
Answer: Kidney

Question 105. Which type of cell is a LE cell basically?
Answer: Phagocytic leucocyte

Question 106. Which stain is used for the histological diagnosis of amyloid?
Answer: Congo red

Question 107. Tapioca­like granules on gross examination of “sago spleen” is due to.
Answer: Amyloid of spleen

Question 108. Which term is collectively referred to as cancers?
Answer: Malignant tumors

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Question 109. Which component is crucial for the growth of the neoplasm?
Answer: Stroma

Question 110. Which term is given to benign epithelial neoplasms producing gland patterns and to those derived from glands but not necessarily exhibiting gland patterns?
Answer: Adenoma

Question 111. Name the benign epithelial neoplasm that produces microscopic or macroscopic figer-like fronds.
Answer: Papilloma

Question 112. Name the neoplasm that projects above a mucosal surface.
Answer: Polyp

Question 113. Where do cystadenomas are characteristically seen?
Answer: Ovary

Question 114. Name the malignant neoplasms arising from mesenchymal tissues.
Answer: Sarcoma

Question 115. Name the malignant neoplasms arising from epithelial cell origin.
Answer: Carcinoma

Question 116. Which tumor contains recognizable mature or immature cells or tissue representatives of more than one germ layer and sometimes all three?
Answer: Teratomas

Question 117. Name the benign neoplasm arising from smooth muscle.
Answer: Leiomyoma

Question 118. Name the benign neoplasms arising from skeletal muscle.
Answer: Rhabdomyosarcoma

Question 119. What is considered the hallmark of malignancy?
Answer: Anaplasia

Question 120. What is the normal nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio?
Answer: 1:4 Or 1:6

Question 121. What is the nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio in malignant neoplasms?
Answer: 1:1

Question 122. What is referred to as disordered cellular arrangement?
Answer: Dysplasia

Question 123. What is the condition known as when dysplastic changes are marked and involve the entire thickness of the epithelium?
Answer: Carcinoma in situ

Question 124. Which is the most reliable feature that distinguishes a malignant from a benign tumor?
Answer: Metastasis

Question 125. Carcinomas spread by which route?
Answer: Lymphatic route

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Question 126. Sarcomas spread by which route?
Answer: Hematogenous route

Question 127. Individuals exposed to asbestos are at an increased risk of developing cancer.
Answer: Bronchogenic cancer

Question 128. Individuals exposed to benzene are at an increased risk of developing which disease?
Answer: Leukemia

Question 129. What is the proto­oncogene which presents apoptosis or programmed cell death?
Answer: bcl-2 gene

Question 130. Which gene can function both as an oncogene and a cancer suppressor gene?
Answer: p53

Question 131. HPV leads to carcinoma.
Answer: Cervix

Question 132. Which pattern of growth do malignant melanomas are proposed to have?
Answer: Radial and vertical

Question 133. Which lesion shows abtropfung effct?
Answer: Junctional nevus

Question 134. Which is the most prevalent chronic occupational disease in the world?
Answer: Silicosis

Question 135. Where do Ferruginous bodies are seen?
Answer: Asbestosis

Question 136. Hemoglobin has how much affinity for CO than O2.
Answer: 200 times

Question 137. Most of the alcohol in the blood is transformed into the liver component.
Answer: Acetaldehyde

Question 138. Which is the primary target of ionizing radiation?
Answer: DNA

Question 139. Name the disease which shows flaky paint skin lesions, with alternating zones of hyperpigmentation and area of desquamation.
Answer: Kwashiorkor

Question 140. Bitot spots occur due to the deficiency of which vitamin?
Answer: Vitamin A

Question 141. When vitamin D is derived from plant sources in which form it is present?
Answer: Ergosterol

Question 142. Which hormone is referred to as steroid hormone?
Answer: Vitamin D

Question 143. Which is biologically the most active form of vitamin D?
Answer: 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol

Question 144. Name the disease which shows clinical features such as Rachitic rosary, Harrison’s groove, and craniotabes.
Answer: Rickets

Question 145. Name the enzyme whose lagging cannot synthesize vitamin C in humans?
Answer: Gluconolactone oxidase

Question 146. How much body mass index (BMI) is considered normal?
Answer: 25 Kg/m2

Question 147. Which type of liver is produced by chronic venous congestion of the liver?
Answer: Nutmeg liver

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Question 148. What does serum levels of lactic dehydrogenase and creatine kinase are diagnostic of?
Answer: Myocardial infarction

Question 149. What is the ultimate cause of death in sudden cardiac failure?
Answer: Arrhythmia

Question 150. Which is the most common congenital heart disease?
Answer: Ventricular septal defect

Question 151. Substitutions of valine for glutamic acid at the 6th position of which chain produces sickle cell anemia.
Answer: Beta

Question 152. How much reduction of the life span of RBC occurs in sickle cell anemia?
Answer: 20 days

Question 153. What does hydrops detalis and kernicterus are suggestive of?
Answer: Erythroblastosis fetalis

Question 154. Which is a good indicator of body iron stores?
Answer: Serum ferritin

Question 155. What do iron deficiency anemia, dysphagia, and esophageal webs suggestive of?
Answer: Plummer-Vinson syndrome

Question 156. What does cobalamin deficiency produce?
Answer: Pernicious anemia

Question 157. What does Starry Sky pattern indicative of?
Answer: Burkitts lymphoma

Question 158. Reed­Sternberg cell is seen in which disease.
Answer: Hodgkin’s disease

Question 159. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia is most commonly seen in.
Answer: Children

Question 160. In which disease auer rods are seen?
Answer: Acute myeloblastic leukemia

Question 161. Name the disease associated with Philadelphia chromosome.
Answer: Chronic myeloid leukemia

Question 162. Which is the most common malignant plasma cell dyscrasia?
Answer: Multiple myeloma

Question 163. Which is the most common site for multiple myeloma?
Answer: Vertebral column

Question 164. Bence Jones proteins which are seen in serum or urine of which disease?
Answer: Multiple myeloma

Question 165. HX bodies (Birbeck granules) present in the cytoplasm during which disease?
Answer: Langerhans cell histiocytosis

Question 166. How much is the platelet count per microliter or less which is considered to constitute thrombocytopenia?
Answer: 1 lakh

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Question 167. Which is one of the most common hematologic manifestations of AIDS?
Answer: Thrombocytopenia

Question 168. What does factor 8 deficiency lead to?
Answer: Hemophilia A or Classic hemophilia

Question 169. What does the factor 9 deficiency lead to?
Answer: Hemophilia B

Question 170. Which is the most common agent causing atypical pneumonia?
Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Question 171. In which disease colonies of yellow to gray sulfur granules are seen?
Answer: Actinomycosis

Question 172. What does the combination of parenchymal lesion and nodal involvement in tuberculosis is known as?
Answer: Ghon complex

Question 173. What does blood-borne dissemination of tuberculosis produce?
Answer: Miliary tuberculosis

Question 174. What does tuberculosis of vertebrae is called?
Answer: Potts disease

Question 175. What does tuberculosis of the lymph node is known as?
Answer: Scrofula

Question 176. Name the fungal infection which mimics tuberculosis.
Answer: Histoplasmosis

Question 177. Which is the most common disease-forming fungus?
Answer: Candida

Question 178. Name the fungal infection easily mistaken for squamous cell carcinoma.
Answer: Blastomycosis

Question 179. Name the hepatitis which is otherwise known as infective hepatitis or short incubation.
Answer: Hepatitis A

Question 180. Which virus in the past was called an Australian antigen?
Answer: HbsAg

Question 181. What is the other name of serum hepatitis?
Answer: Hepatitis B

Question 182. What is present in serum as a marker for active viral replication?
Answer: HbeAg

Question 183. Which is the valuable marker for infection with initial anti­HBc response?
Answer: IgM

Question 184. What does Juvenile diabetes or ketone-prone diabetes know as?
Answer: Type 1 insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

Question 185. What does the single measure of provide an index of average glucose level over 2—4 months?
Answer: HbA1C

Question 186. In which disease have Armani­Ebstein cells seen?
Answer: Diabetes mellitus

Question 187. Which is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis?
Answer: Grave’s disease

Question 188. What does the Triad of Graves’ disease consist of?
Answer: Exophthalmos, infiltrative dermatopathy, and hyperthyroidism

Question 189. Hurthle cells are seen in which disease?
Answer: Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

 

Very Short Questions

 

Question 1. Enumerate the type of giant cells:
Answer:

Giant cells can be classified based according to their occurrence in the body:

• Physiological giant cells:
  • Osteoclast
  • Megakaryocytes
  • Striated muscle cells
  • Syncytiotrophoblast
• Pathological giant cells:
  • Langhan’s giant cells
  • Foreign body giant cells
  • Touton giant cells
  • Tumor giant cells
  • Warthin-Finkeldey giant cells.

Question 2. Enumerate cardinal signs of acute inflammation:
Answer:

Cardinal signs of acute inflammation are:

• Rubor (redness)
• Calor (increased heat)
• Tumor (swelling)
• Dolor (pain), and
• Functio laksa (loss of function).

Question 3. Enumerate types of necrosis:
Answer:

The following are the types of necrosis:

• Coagulative necrosis
• Liquefaction necrosis
• Caseous necrosis
• Fat necrosis
• Fibrinoid necrosis

Question 4. Enumerate types of shocks:
Answer:

The following are the types of shocks:

• Hypovolemic shock
• Cardiogenic shock
• Septic shock
• Other types
  • Traumatic shock
  • Neurogenic shock
  • Hypoadrenal shock

Question 5. Define amyloidosis:
Answer:

Amyloidosis is the term used for a group of diseases characterized by extracellular deposition of a fibrillar insoluble proteinaceous substance known as amyloid having a common morphological appearance.

staining properties and physical structure but with variable protein composition.

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Question 6. Define atherosclerosis:
Answer:

Atherosclerosis is the thickening and hardening of large and medium-sized muscular arteries, primarily due to the involvement of tunica intima, and is characterized by
firofatt plaques or atheromas.

Question 7. Enumerate a few chronic inflammatory diseases:
Answer:

The following are the chronic inflammatory diseases:

• Chronic osteomyelitis
• Tuberculosis
• Leprosy
• Syphilis
• Actinomycosis
• Schistosomiasis
• Sarcoidosis

Question 8. Enumerate mode of metastasis:
Answer:

The following is the mode of metastasis:

• Lymphatic spread
• Hematogenous spread
• Spread along body cavities and natural passages.