Multiple Choice Questions
1. Migraine is precipitated by:
1. Bacteria
2. Fungus
3. Flash of light
Answer: 3. Flash of light
2. Drug of choice in P. falciparum malaria is:
1. Chloroquine
2. Primaquine
3. Artemether
Answer: 3. Artemether
3. Deficiency of vitamin D causes:
1. Increased thickness of bones
2. Osteoporosis
3. Diarrhea
Answer: 2. Osteoporosis
4. Lymphoma is type of:
1. Disease of lymphatic vessels
2. Disease of lymph nodes and spleen
3. Causes increased neutrophils
Answer: 2. Disease of lymph nodes and spleen
Read And Learn More: General Medicine Question And Answers
5. Factor VIII defiiency causes:
1. Anemia
2. Hemophilia
3. Clottng disorder
Answer: 2. Hemophilia
6. In acute nephritis urine contains:
1. RBCs
2. Factor VIII
3. None of A and B
Answer: 1. RBCs
7. Vitamin B12 is:
1. Fat soluble
2. Water soluble
3. None of a and b
Answer: 2. Water soluble
8. Chronic hepatitis is caused by:
1. Hepatitis B virus
2. Hepatitis C virus
3. Both of a and b
Answer: 3. Both of a and b
9. Vitamin K helps:
1. To stop bleeding
2. To stop clottng
3. None of a and b
Answer: 2. To stop clottng
10. Mumps is caused by:
1. Bacteria
2. Virus
3. Parasite
Answer: 2. Virus
11. Which valve is least affcted in rheumatic fever?
1. Mitral valve
2. Aortic valve
3. Pulmonary valve
4. Tricuspid valve
Answer: 3. Pulmonary valve
12. True about autonomic neuropathy are all except:
1. Resting tachycardia
2. Silent MI
3. Orthostatic hypotension
4. Bradycardia
Answer: 4. Bradycardia
13. Man takes peanut and develops stridor neck swelling,tongue swelling and hoarseness of voice, most probable diagnosis is:
1. Foreign body bronchus
2. Parapharyngeal abscess
3. Foreign body larynx
4. Angioneurotic edema
Answer: 4. Angioneurotic edema
14. The amino acid associated with atherosclerosis:
1. Lysine
2. Cystein
3. Homocysteine
4. Alanine
Answer: 3. Homocysteine
15. A 45-year-old female patient suffring from T2DM with hypertension, which of the following antihypertensive should not be used?
1. Lisinopril
2. Losartan
3. Thiazide
4. Trandolapril
Answer: 1. Lisinopril
16. In stable angina;
1. CKMB is elevated
2. Troponin T and I is elevated
3. All is elevated
4. Nothing is elevated
Answer: 4. Nothing is elevated
17. An obese patient is presented in causality in an unconscious state. His blood sugar is 400mg% urine tested positive for sugar and ketone bodies. Drug most useful in management is:
1. Glibenclamide
2. Pioglitazone
3. Miglitol
4. Insulin
Answer: 1. Glibenclamide
18. All are features of Cushing syndrome except:
1. Central obesity
2. Glucose intolerance
3. Episodic hypertension
4. Easy bruising
Answer: 3. Episodic hypertension
19. The best marker to diagnose thyroid-related disorder is:
1. T3
2. T4
3. TSH
4. Thyroglobin
Answer: 3. TSH
20. A 5-year-old girl always have to wear worn socks even is summer season, on physical examination it was noticed that she had high blood pressure and her femorals are weak as compared to radials and carotid pulse. Chest X-ray showed remarkable notching of ribs along with lower borders. This was due to:
1. Femoral artery thrombosis
2. Reynaud’s disease
3. Coarctation of aorta
4. Takayasu’s arteritis
Answer: 3. Coarctation of aorta
21. The most important diagnostic method for enteric fever is:
1. Widal test
2. Blood culture
3. Xray abdomen
4. Ultrasonography of abdomen
Answer: 1. Widal test
22. Peptic ulceration is strongly associated with:
1. Family history
2. Irregular dietary habits
3. Hurry, worry and curry
4. Helicobacter pylori infection
Answer: 4. Helicobacter pylori infection
23. All the following can cause acute gastritis except:
1. Antihypertensives
2. Non steroidal anti-inflmmatory drugs
3. Salicylates
4. Corticosteroids
Answer: 4. Corticosteroids
24. Palatal palsy is a complication of:
1. Syphilis
2. Rubella
3. Diphtheria
4. Mumps
Answer: 3. Diphtheria
25. All are clinical features of cirrhosis of liver expect:
1. Increased libido
2. Ascites
3. Jaundice
4. Palmar erythema
Answer: 1. Increased libido
26. Which of the following is not characteristic of congenital syphilis?
1. Interstitial keratitis
2. Mulberry molars
3. Notched incisors
4. Ghon‘s complex
Answer: 4. Ghon‘s complex
27. Macrocytic anemia is due to defiiency of:
1. B1
2. B2
3. B6
4. B12
Answer: 4. B12
28. The Best test for assessment of iron status is:
1. Transferrin
2. Plasma ferritin
3. Serum iron
4. Hemoglobin
Answer: 1. Transferrin
29. Thiamin deficiency causes:
1. Ophthalmoplegia
2. Cardiomyopathy
3. Peripheral neuropathy
4. All the above
Answer: 4. All the above
30.“ CD4 count” term is used with which disease:
1. Hepatitis B
2. AIDS
3. Pernicious anemia
4. Falciparum malaria.
Answer: 2. AIDS
31. Which of the following drug is used in the treatment of hyperkalemia in acute renal failure?
1. Amlodipine
2. Captopril
3. Insulin
4. Atenolol
Answer: 3. Insulin
32. A boy presents with headache, vomiting, fever, neck stiffess the most important investigation is:
1. Complete blood counts
2. Xray skull
3. CSF Examination
4. MRI Brain
Answer: 3. CSF Examination
33. In cardiology department, RMO makes a diagnosis of mitral stenosis. The most important sign on which diagnosis is based is:
1. Ejection systolic murmur
2. Mid diastolic murmur
3. Pansystolic murmur
4. Third heart sound
Answer: 2. Mid-diastolic murmur
34. A 15-year-old boy who is IDDM presents with pain in abdomen, vomiting and shortness of breath. He also gives history of fever and sore throat two days back.
The most likely cause of his symptoms:
1. Renal failure
2. Gastritis
3. Diabetic ketoacidosis
4. Nonketotic hyperosmolar coma
Answer: 3. Diabetic ketoacidosis
35. A patient of pulmonary tuberculosis is taking ATT,presents with joint pain and raised uric acid level. The most likely cause of symptoms is side effct of:
1. INH
2. Pyrazinamide
3. Streptomycin
4. Ethambutol
Answer: 2. Pyrazinamide
36. The most important investigation to confim diagnosis of bronchial asthma is:
1. Xray chest
2. Lung function test
3. Serum IgE level
4. CBC
Answer: 3. Serum IgE level
37. A 18-year-old boy with hypertension, examination of CVS reveals radiofemoral delay. The most likely cause of hypertension in this patient is:
1. Coarctation of aorta
2. Conn‘s syndrome
3. Renal artery stenosis
4. Diabetic nephropathy
Answer: 1. Coarctation of aorta
38. Gait of a patient suffring from parkinsonism is likely to be:
1. Normal
2. Shufflg
3. Hemiplegic
4. Drunken
Answer: 2. Shufflg
39. In thalassemia, peripheral smear for RBC morphology shows:
1. Normochromic normocytic
2. Sickle cells
3. Hypochromic microcytic
4. Macrocytosis
Answer: 3. Hypochromic microcytic
40. A patient of thromboembolic stroke is taking warfarin.
He comes to dental OPD for tooth extraction. The most useful investigation to see effct of warfarin is:
1. Hematocrit
2. Platelet count
3. Prothrombin time
4. Bleeding time
Answer: 3. Prothrombin time
41. Hepatitis B spreads through:
1. Blood transfusion
2. Alcohol consumption
3. Faecooral route
4. Droplet infection
Answer: 1. Blood transfusion
42. Following are the causes of cirrhosis of liver except:
1. Alcoholism
2. Wilson’s disease
3. Hepatitis E
4. Hemochromatosis
Answer: 3. Hepatitis E
43. Chronic diarrhea is a feature of infection by:
1. Bacillus cereus
2. Cholera
3. Giardiasis
4. Camphylobacter
Answer: 1. Bacillus cereus
44. Koilonychia is a feature of:
1. Vitamin B12 defiiency
2. Iron defiiency
3. Protein defiiency
4. Folic acid defiiency
Answer: 2. Iron defiiency
45. Schilling’s test is performed to detect defiiency of:
1. Vitamin B1
2. Vitamin B2
3. Vitamin B6
4. Vitamin B12
Answer: 4. Vitamin B12
46. Exanthematous fever characterized by vesicular eruption is:
1. Measles
2. Mumps
3. Rubella
4. Varicella
Answer: 1. Measles
47. Cerebral malaria is caused by:
1. P. Falciparum
2. P. vivax
3. P. malariae
4. P. ovale
Answer: 1. P. Falciparum
48. The most common mode of transmission of HIV worldwide is:
1. Mother to fetus
2. Injection drug use
3. Homosexuals
4. Heterosexuals
Answer: 4. Heterosexuals
49. Intrinsic factor is secreted by:
1. Parietal cells
2. Chief cells
3. Mucous cells
4. Endocrine cells
Answer: 1. Parietal cells
50. Following are vitamin K dependent clottng factors except:
1. Factor VII
2. Factor VIII
3. Factor IX
4. Factor X
Answer: 2. Factor VIII
51. A 40-year male present in emergency department with central chest pain. His BP is 100/60 mm of Hg and pulse is 110 BPM, low volume. He is pale and sweating profusely. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Esophagitis
2. Myocardial infarction
3. Pleural effsion
4. Pneumothorax
Answer: 2. Myocardial infarction
52. In rheumatic fever, the treatment of choice for symptoms is:
1. Aspirin
2. Paracetamol
3. Morphine
4. Ibuprofen
Answer: 1. Aspirin
53. A 40 year old female presents with the cold intolerance,swelling all over body, hoarseness of voice and goiter.
The most likely fiding on CNS examination is:
1. Hyperreflxia
2. Hypotonia
3. Ataxia
4. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk
Answer: 4. Delayed relaxation of ankle jerk
54. In a patient of centripital obesity, acne and hirsutism the most likely diagnosis is:
1. Hypogonadism
2. Simple obesity
3. Hypothyroidism
4. Cushing’s syndrome
Answer: 4. Cushing’s syndrome
55. An epileptic girl is having gingival hypertrophy in dental OP4. Antiepileptic drug which she is most likely taking is:
1. Na valproate
2. Phenytoin
3. Carbamazepine
4. Gabapentin
Answer: 2. Phenytoin
56. A 50-year-old man is admittd in ICCU with acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following drugs is used in reperfusion therapy?
1. Warfarin
2. Aspirin
3. Streptokinase
4. Heparin
Answer: 3. Streptokinase
57. A 18 years boy present with chronic diarrhe1. Which of the following features suggests that he has irritable bowel syndrome:
1. Anemia
2. Abdominal pain relieved by defecation
3. Nocturnal symptoms
4. Blood in stool
Answer: 2. Abdominal pain relieved by defecation
58. In a patient with history of muscle cramps and carpopedal spasm. Which of the following serum electrolyte level is likely to be low?
1. Calcium
2. Sodium
3. Chloride
4. Potassium
Answer: 1. Calcium
59. The most common side effct of quinine is:
1. Coma
2. Deafness
3. Headache
4. Tremors
Answer: 2. Deafness
60. A young boy presents with fever, skin rash and diarrhe1. Examination of oral cavity shows Koplik spots on mucos1. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Measles
2. Chickenpox
3. Smallpox
4. Typhoid
Answer: 1. Measles
61. One of the following is true about herpes zoster:
1. Itching vesicles appear around lips
2. Systemic viral infection causes vesicles around penile area
3. Burning discomfort occurs in affcted dermatome where discrete vesicles appear 3–4 days later
4. Vesicular eruptions begin on mucosal surface fist followed by centripetal distribution
Answer: 3. Burning discomfort occurs in affcted dermatome where discrete vesicles appear 3–4 days later
62. Pernicious anemia is due to:
1. Gastric atrophy
2. Vitamin B1 defiiency
3. Vitamin B12 defiiency
4. Folic acid defiiency
Answer:3. Vitamin B12 defiiency
63. Deficiency of coagulation factor IX is associated with:
1. Hemophilia A
2. Hemophilia B
3. Henochschönlein purpura
4. All the above
Answer:2. Hemophilia B
64. Bull neck in diphtheria is due to:
1. Cellulitis
2. Laryngeal edema
3. Retropharyngeal abscess
4. Lymphadenopathy
Answer: 4. Lymphadenopathy
65. Spider nevi, palmar erythema, Gynecomastia are features of:
1. Acute Amoebic dysentery
2. Chronic Amoebic dysentery
3. Acute liver disease
4. Chronic liver disease
Answer: 4. Chronic liver disease
66. The complication of enteric fever during second to third week is:
1. Deafness
2. Perforation of intestine
3. Anemia
4. None of the above
Answer:3. Anemia
67. One of the following statement is true about primary chancre:
1. It is caused by Mycobacterium
2. Incubation period is under a week
3. The red macule is eroded to form an indurated painful ulcer
4. It resolves within 26 weeks without treatment
Answer: 3. The red macule is eroded to form an indurated painful ulcer
68. Long-term treatment with overdoses of corticosteroids may result in all the following except:
1. Osteoporosis
2. Diabetes mellitus
3. Blood dyscrasias
4. Susceptibility to infection
Answer: 3. Blood dyscrasias
69. Hepatitis A is spreaded by:
1. Fecooral route
2. Vertical transmission
3. Blood transfusion
4. Droplet infection
Answer: 1. Fecooral route
70. Treatment of angular stomatitis and cheilosis is:
1. Pyridoxine
2. Riboflvin
3. Cyanocobalamin
4. Vitamin C
Answer:2. Riboflvin
71. In emergency, treatment of choice for anaphylactic shock is:
1. Ampicillin
2. Adrenaline
3. Amiodarone
Answer:2. Adrenaline
72. Which parameter can be used to monitor severity of bronchial asthma at home?
1. ECG
2. PEFR
3. EEG
4. EMG
Answer: 2. PEFR
73. Which is responsible for rheumatic fever?
1. Staphylococcus
2. E. Coli
3. Streptococcus
4. Clostridium
Answer: 3. Streptococcus
74. Which drug is useful for prevention of migraine?
1. Aspirin
2. Paracetamol
3. Ergot
4. Flunarizine
Answer:3. Ergot
75. ADA criteria for diagnosis of diabetes fasting blood glucose should be equal to or more than
1. 50 mg/dL
2. 100 mg/dL
3. 126 mg/dL
4. 102 mg/dL
Answer: 3. 126 mg/dL
76. In acute LVF (Pulmonary edema), treatment of choice in emergency is:
1. Furosemide
2. Ciproflxacin
3. Quinidine
4. Thiazide
Answer: 1. Furosemide
77. Exopthalmos is clinical feature of:
1. Hypothyroidism
2. Malaria
3. Throtoxicosis
4. Diabetes
Answer: 3. Throtoxicosis
78. A continuous murmur is present in which congenital heart disease:
1. ASD
2. VSD
3. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
4. CHB
Answer: 3. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
79. Fever, headache, vomiting and neck rigidity is seen in which condition:
1. Pneumonia
2. Panic attck
3. Meningitis
4. Anxiety
Answer: 3. Meningitis
80.Postural hypotension is common side effct of which drug:
1. Prazosin
2. Dilantin
3. Chloroquine
4. Clopidogrel
Answer: 1. Prazosin
81. Following hepatitis viruses are RNA viruses except:
1. Hepatitis A
2. Hepatitis B
3. Hepatitis C
4. Hepatitis D
Answer: 2. Hepatitis B
82. Liver synthesizes following clottng factors except:
1. Factor VIII
2. Factor VII
3. Vitamin K
4. Fibrinogen
Answer: 1. Factor VIII
83. Milk is devoid of:
1. Iron
2. Proteins
3. Fats
4. Calcium
Answer: 1. Iron
84. Steatorrhea is a feature of:
1. Amoebic dysentery
2. Malabsorption syndrome
3. Bacillary dysentery
4. Pseudomembranous colitis
Answer: 2. Malabsorption syndrome
85. Casal’s necklace is a feature of defiiency of:
1. Thiamine
2. Riboflvin
3. Pyridoxine
4. Niacin
Answer: 3. Pyridoxine
86. Which of the following malignancy is associated with HIV infection?
1. Kaposi’s Sarcoma
2. Lymphatic leukemia
3. Hepatocellular carcinoma
4. Chronic myeloid leukemia
Answer: 1. Kaposi’s Sarcoma
87. For labeling, a patient of PUO, the duration of fever should be:
1. 1 week
2. 2 weeks
3. 3 weeks
4. 4 weeks
Answer: 3. 3 weeks
88. Generalized lymphadenopathy is a feature of:
1. Latent syphilis
2. Secondary syphilis
3. Primary syphilis
4. Neurosyphilis
Answer: 2. Secondary syphilis
89. Iron absorption mainly takes place in:
1. Stomach
2. Ileum
3. Jejunum
4. Colon
Answer: 3. Jejunum
90. Pernicious anemia is caused by the defiiency of:
1. Folic acid
2. Thiamine
3. Cyanocobalamine
4. Ascorbic acid
Answer: 3. Cyanocobalamine
91. Chronic smoking is a risk factor for:
1. Bronchogenic carcinoma
2. Pneumonia
3. PTB
4. ARDS
Answer: 1. Bronchogenic carcinoma
92. During examination of a patient hyper-resonant will be seen in case of:
1. Pneumothorax
2. Pleural effsion
3. Pneumonia
4. PTB
Answer: 1. Pneumothorax
93. Irregularly irregular pulse is seen in a case of:
1. CHB
2. VT
3. SVT
4. Atrial firillation
Answer: 4. Atrial firillation
94. Which drug is used for thyrotoxicosis?
1. Carbemazepine
2. Dilantin
3. Carbimazole
4. Aspirin
Answer: 3. Carbimazole
95. In acute myocardial infarction which drug can be used for reperfusion?
1. Ceftriaxone
2. Streptokinase
3. Warfarin
4. Dapsone
Answer: 2. Streptokinase
96. Hypoglycemia can be treated in acute stage by:
1. Ampicillin
2. Dexamethasone
3. Glucagon
4. GH
Answer: 3. Glucagon
97. Which one is good cholesterol?
1. HDL
2. LDL
3. VLDL
4. TG
Answer: 1. HDL
98. Pulse pressure is wide in which valvular heart disease:
1. Aortic regurgitation (AR)
2. MS
3. AS
4. PS
Answer: 1. Aortic regurgitation (AR)
99. Cushing’s syndrome is due to excess of which hormone:
1. Glucocorticoids
2. Insulin
3. Growth hormone
4. TSH
Answer: 1. Glucocorticoids
100. In SVT of new-onset treatment of choice is:
1. Cardioversion
2. Digoxin
3. Betablocker
4. Verapamil
Answer: 4. Verapamil
101. TSH is raised in:
1. Hyperthyroidism
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Euthyroidism
4. All of the above
Answer: 2. Hypothyroidism
102. Gait in parkinsonism is:
1. Hemiplegic
2. Shufflg
3. Drunkin
4. All of the above
Answer: 1. Hemiplegic
103. Mid-diastolic murmur is seen in:
1. Mitral stenosis
2. Atrial stenosis
3. Aortic regurgitation
4. All of the above
Answer: 1. Mitral stenosis
104. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in:
1. Adult + hypertension
2. Diabetic hypertension
3. Pregnancy hypertension
4. None of the above
Answer: 4. None of the above
105. Drug of choice in diabetic ketoacidosis is:
1. Sulphonyl urea
2. Metformin
3. Insulin
4. All of the above
Answer: 3. Insulin
106. Normal blood pH is:
1. 7.4
2. 7.2
3. 7.1
4. None of the above
Answer: 1. 7.4
107. Increase in blood homocysteine level causes:
1. Pneumonia
2. Nephritis
3. Coronary artery disease
4. All of the above
Answer: 3. Coronary artery disease
108. Petechial hemorrhages are seen in:
1. Tubercular meningitis
2. Pneumococcal meningitis
3. Meningiococcal meningitis
4. All of the above
Answer: 3. Meningiococcal meningitis
109. Subcutaneous nodules are seen in:
1. Rheumatic fever
2. Bacterial endocarditis
3. Angina pectoris
4. All of the above
Answer: 1. Rheumatic fever
110. Blackish discoloration of buccal mucosa is seen in:
1. Tetany
2. Acromegaly
3. Addison’s disease
4. None of the above
Answer: 3. Addison’s disease
111. T3 is raised in:
1. Hypothyroidsm
2. Hyperthyroidism
3. Euthyroid
4. All of the above
Answer: 2. Hyperthyroidism
112. Tremors, rigidity and hypokinesia is a feature of:
1. Meningitis
2. Encephalitis
3. Parkinsonism
4. All of the above
Answer: 3. Parkinsonism
113. Pan systolic murmur is seen in:
1. Mitral stenosis
2. Mitral regurgitation
3. Aortic stenosis
4. All of the above
Answer: 2. Mitral regurgitation
114. Drug of choice in pregnancy hypertension is:
1. ACE inhibitor
2. ARBs
3. Methyldopa
4. All of the above
Answer: 3. Methyldopa
115. Drug of choice in gestational diabetes is:
1. Metformin
2. Insulin
3. Sulphonyl urea
4. All of the above
Answer: 1. Metformin
116. Clubbing and chymosin both are seen in:
1. Mitral stenosis
2. Congestive heart failure
3. Fallot’s teratology
4. None of the above
Answer: 4. None of the above
117. Exophthalmos is seen in:
1. Grave’s disease
2. Acromegaly
3. Tetany
4. None of the above
Answer: 1. Grave’s disease
118. Water hammer pulse is seen in:
1. Mitral stenosis
2. Aortic regurgitation
3. Aortic stenosis
4. All of the above
Answer: 2. Aortic regurgitation
119. Insulin resistance is seen in:
1. Type Idiabetes
2. Type IIdiabetes
3. Both of the above
4. None of the above
Answer: 4. None of the above
120. Smoking is a risk factor for:
1. Lung cancer
2. Myocardial infarction
3. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
4. All of the above
Answer: 4. All of the above
121. TSH is decreased in:
1. Hypothyroidism
2. Hyperthyroidism
3. Euthyroidism
4. None of the above
Answer: 2. Hyperthyroidism
122. Drug of choice in gestational diabetes is:
1. Sulphonyl urea
2. Metformin
3. Insulin
4. All of the above
Answer: 3. Insulin
123. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in:
1. Adult hypertension
2. Diabetic hypertension
3. Pregnancy hypertension
4. None of the above
Answer: 3. Pregnancy hypertension
124. Osler’s nodes are found in:
1. Rheumatic fever
2. CCF
3. Infective endocarditis
4. All of the above
Answer: 3. Infective endocarditis
125. Tremors, rigidity and hypokinesia is the feature of:
1. Parkinsonism
2. Mitral stenosis
3. Aortic regurgitation
4. All of the above
Answer: 1. Parkinsonism
126. Hypoglycemia can be treated in acute stage by:
1. Sulphonyl urea
2. Glucagon
3. Dexamethasone
4. Insulin
Answer: 2. Glucagon
127. Drug of choice in thyrotoxicosis:
1. Carbimazole
2. Dilantin
3. Carbamazepine
4. Levothyroxine
Answer: 1. Carbimazole
128. Water hammer pulse is seen in:
1. Aortic regurgitation
2. Mitral stenosis
3. CCF
4. None of the above
Answer: 2. Mitral stenosis
129. Cushing’s syndrome is due to excess of which hormone:
1. Insulin
2. TSH
3. Growth hormone
4. Glucocorticoids
Answer: 4. Glucocorticoids
130. Which drug is useful for prevention of migraine?
1. Aspirin
2. Paracetamol
3. ACE inhibitors
4. Flunarzine
Answer: 3. ACE inhibitors
131. Gum hypertrophy is caused by:
1. Phenytoin sodium
2. Phenobarbitone
3. Sodium valproate
4. Carbamazepine
Answer: 1. Phenytoin sodium
132. Chronic hepatitis is seen in (most commonly):
1. Hepatitis A
2. Hepatitis B
3. Hepatitis C
4. Hepatitis D
Answer: 2. Hepatitis B
133. Swelling of salivary glands is seen in:
1. Infectious mononucleosis
2. Measles
3. Mumps
4. Rubella
Answer: 3. Mumps
134. Xerophthalmia is seen in:
1. Vitamin A deficiency
2. Vitamin B deficiency
3. Vitamin C deficiency
4. Vitamin D deficiency
Answer: 1. Vitamin A deficiency
135. Corynebacterium diphtheria has following features:
1. Nonmotile
2. Nonsporing
3. Gram-positive
4. All of the above
Answer: 4. All of the above
136. Ludwig’s angina involves spaces except:
1. Subarachanoid
2. Bilateral sublingual
3. Bilateral submental
4. Bilateral submandibular
Answer: 1. Subarachanoid
137. Generalized lymphadenopathy is the feature of:
1. Agranulocytosis
2. Diarrhea
3. Lymphomas
4. Renal failure
Answer: 3. Lymphomas
138. Von Willebrand disease is caused by defiiency of:
1. Factor VII
2. Subendothelial factor VIII
3. Factor IX
4. Factor X
Answer: 2. Subendothelial factor VIII
139. In cases of agranulocytosis:
1. Platelet count is increased
2. RBC count is increased
3. WBC count is decreased
4. WBC count is increased
Answer: 3. WBC count is decreased
140. Hemodialysis is done in cases of:
1. Congestive cardiac failure
2. Chronic myeloid leukemia
3. Chronic renal failure
4. Chronic obstructive lung disease
Answer: 3. Chronic renal failure
141.A dangerous type of wear:
1. Attc granulation
2. Central perforation
3. Marginal perforation
4. Multiple perforation
Answer: 2. Central perforation
142. Ototoxic drug is:
1. Gentamycin
2. Metrogyl
3. Penicillin
4. Ampicillin
Answer: 1. Gentamycin
143. No hepatic dose adjustment is required in:
1. Rifampicin
2. INH
3. Ethambutol
4. PZA
Answer: 3. Ethambutol
144. Fatt change in liver is due to accumulation of:
1. Cholestrol
2. VLDL
3. LDL
4. Triglyceride
Answer: 4. Triglyceride
145. Which inhaled pollutant likely to cause pulmonary firosis:
1. Silica
2. Tobacco
3. Ozone
4. Carbon dioxide
Answer: 1. Silica
146. Not associated with cancer:
1. Fragile X syndrome
2. Fanconi’s syndrome
3. Down’s syndrome
4. Bloom syndrome
Answer: 3. Down’s syndrome
147. Radiofrequency ablation is done for:
1. Ventricular tachycardia
2. PSVT
3. WPW
4. Atrial tachycardia
Answer: 2. PSVT
148. Nosocomial pneumonia is most commonly caused by:
1. Gram negative bacilli
2. Gram positive bacilli
3. Gram negative cocci
4. Mycoplasma
Answer: 1. Gram negative bacilli
149. Electrical alternans is seen in:
1. Cardiac temponade
2. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
3. Left atrial myxoma
4. COPD
Answer: 1. Cardiac temponade
150. In Kartagener syndrome all are seen except:
1. Cystic firosis
2. Dextrocardia
3. Sinusitis
4. Absence of cilia
Answer: 2. Dextrocardia
151. Most common cause of superior vena cava obstruction is:
1. Thrombosis
2. Extrinsic compression
3. Mediastinal lymphoma
4. Teratoma
Answer: 3. Mediastinal lymphoma
152. Most common sign of aspiration pneumonitis:
1. Tachypneoa
2. Broncheospasm
3. Cyanosis
4. Crepitation
Answer: 1. Tachypneoa
153. Aspirin-sensitive asthma is associated with:
1. Extrinsic asthma
2. Urticaria
3. Nasal polyp
4. Obesity
Answer: 1. Extrinsic asthma
154. Ursodeoxycholic acid is a:
1. Urinary stone dissolving drug
2. Thrombolytic drug
3. Gallstone dissolving drug
4. Antiplatelet
Answer: 3. Gallstone dissolving drug
155. Highest concentration of K+ is seen in:
1. Dueodenum
2. Jejunum
3. Ileum
4. Colon
Answer: 4. Colon
156. Diabetes insipidus is due to lack of:
1. ANP
2. Vasopressin
3. Aldosterone
4. Insulin
Answer: 2. Vasopressin
157. Elevated glucose level especially in obese may be due to:
1. DKA
2. Glucose intolerance
3. Insulin resistance
4. Insulin shock
Answer: 3. Insulin resistance
158. Which of the following is hypoglycemic drug:
1. Atorvastatin
2. Vildagliptin
3. Glimepride
4. Clopidogrel
Answer: 2. Vildagliptin and 3. Glimepride
159. “Master gland” of endocrine system located in base of brain:
1. Apical gland
2. Bartholin gland
3. Pituitary gland
4. Thyroid gland
Answer: 3. Pituitary gland
160. Glitazones are used to treat:
1. Diabetes insipidua
2. NIDDM
3. Infertility
4. Hypothyroidism
Answer: 2. NIDDM
161. Pernicious anemia is due to failure of production of:
1. Bile
2. Insulin
3. Intrinsic factor
4. ACTH
Answer: 3. Intrinsic factor
162. Complication of herpes zoster is:
1. Haemolytic uremic syndrome
2. Toxic mega colon
3. Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy
4. Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
Answer: 4. Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
163. Digoxin is used in:
1. NIDDM
2. Cardiac arrhythmia
3. Diabetes insipidus
4. Hypothyroidism
Answer: 2. Cardiac arrhythmia
164. Which of these is a hemolytic anemia:
1. Sideroblastic anemia
2. Aplastic anemia
3. Hereditary anemia
4. Aplastic anemia
Answer: 3. Hereditary anemia
165. HAART is used in treatment of following infection:
1. HAV
2. HBV
3. HCV
4. HIV
Answer: 4. HIV
166. Community-acquired pneumonia is most commonly caused by:
1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Streptococcus pyogenes
3. Streptococcus pneumonia
4. Mycoplasma
Answer: 3. Streptococcus pneumonia
167. Autoimmune disease causing oral ulcer is:
1. Liver cirrhosis
2. Diabetes insipidus
3. Systemic lupus erythematosus
4. Hypothyroidism
Answer: 3. Systemic lupus erythematosus
168. Hepatitis B virus belongs to family called:
1. Flaviviridae
2. Picornavirus
3. Deltaviridae
4. Hepadnaviridae
Answer: 4. Hepadnaviridae
169. Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state is complication of:
1. Hyperthyroidism
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Diabetes insipidus
4. Diabetes mellitus
Answer: 3. Diabetes insipidus
170. Which of the following is thiazolidinedione:
1. Glimepiride
2. Vildagliptin
3. Pioglitazone
4. Metformin
Answer: 4. Metformin
171. Common causative agent for subacute infective endocarditis:
1. Staphylococcus epidermis
2. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
3. Enterococci
4. Streptococcus viridians
Answer: 3. Enterococci
172. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is a symptom of:
1. Liver cirrhosis
2. Hypertension
3. Heart failure
4. Renal failure
Answer: 1. Liver cirrhosis
173. Drug used in treatment of CML is:
1. Imatinib mesylate
2. Fludarabine
3. Rituximab
4. Cyclophosphamide
Answer: 1. Imatinib mesylate
174. Cushing’s syndrome is due to:
1. Increased insulin
2. Hypoaldosteronism
3. Increased mineralocorticoid
4. Increased glucocorticoid
Answer: 4. Increased glucocorticoid
175. In nephrotic syndrome there is:
1. Hyperalbuminemia
2. Massive proteinuria
3. Mild proteinuria
4. Hypolipidemia
Answer: 2. Massive proteinuria
176. Bell’s palsy is a:
1. Upper motor neuron type of 5th nerve palsy
2. Upper motor neuron type of 7th nerve palsy
3. Lower motor neuron type of 5th nerve palsy
4. Lower motor neuron type of 7th nerve palsy
Answer: 4. Lower motor neuron type of 7th nerve palsy
177. Which of the following is an anti–platelet drug:
1. Prednisone
2. Repaglinide
3. Clopidogrel
4. Atorvastatin
Answer: 3. Clopidogrel
178. Second line anti-tubercular drug is:
1. Athionamide
2. Isoniazid
3. Streptomycin
4. Rifampcin
Answer: 3. Clopidogrel
179. Status epilepticus refers to:
1. Cardiac arrhythmia
2. Continuous seizures
3. Continuous fever
4. Hyperglycemia
Answer: 2. Continuous seizures
180.β adrenoceptor agonist are used in:
1. Diabetes mellitus
2. Myocardial infarction
3. Atrial firillation
4. Bronchial asthma
Answer: 4. Bronchial asthma
Fill In The Blanks
1. Herpes simplex is caused by ………………
Answer. HSV1 and HSV2
2. Diptheria is caused by ………………
Answer. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
3. Syphilis is caused by ………………
Answer. Treponema pallidum
4. Amoebiasis is caused by ………………
Answer. Entamoeba histolytica
5. The most common cause of pleural effusion is………………
Answer. Pneumonia
6. Pellagra is caused by ………………
Answer. Vitamin B3 defiiency
7. Vitamin C defiiency causes ………………
Answer. Scurvy
8. TSH level is raised in ………………
Answer. Hypothyroidism
9. Syncope is due to ………………
Answer. Hypotension
10. Agranulocytosis means decrease of ………………
Answer. White blood cells
11. Stomatitis is the feature of defiiency of ………………
Answer. Iron
12. Acromegaly occurs due to ………………
Answer. Secretion of excess growth hormone
13. Smoking commonly causes cancer of ………………
Answer. Lungs
14. Caput Medusae is seen in ………………
Answer. Portal hypertension
15. Hypertension means BP above ……………… mm Hg.
Answer. 140/90
16. Ischemic heart disease is due to occlusion of arteries called ………………
Answer. Coronary Artery
17. Anti-viral drug use in treatment of viral hepatitis B is………………
Answer. Lamivudine
18. Kernig’s sign is positive in ………………
Answer. Meningitis
19. Addison’s disease is due to ………………
Answer. Adrenal insuffiency
20. Cushing’s syndrome is due to ………………
Answer. Excess of ACTH hormone
21. Mumps cause enlargement of glands called ……………
Answer. Parotid
22. Full form of AIDS is ………………
Answer. Acquired Immuno Defiiency Syndrome
23. Enteric fever is caused by ………………
Answer. Salmonella typhi
24. AIDS is caused by ………………
Answer. HIV virus
25. TSH level is decreased in ………………
Answer. Hyperthyroidism
26. Water soluble vitamins are …………… and …………
Answer. BComplex and Vitamin C
27.Vitamin B1 defiiency causes ………………
Answer. Beriberi
28. Bell’s Palsy is paralysis of …………… cranial nerve.
Answer. Facial nerve (Seventh)
29. Tachycardia means heart rate more than ……………
Answer. 100 beats/min
30. Most common cause of pneumonia is ………………
Answer. Bacteria
31. Cause of bacillary dysentery is ………………
Answer. Shigella Bacterium
32. Viral hepatitis occur due to hepatitis ……………… ………………, ……………… and ……………… virus.
Answer. A, B, C, D and E
33. Night blindness is the feature of vitamin ……………… defiiency.
Answer. Vitamin A
34. Cretinism occurs due to ………………
Answer. Hypothyroidism
35. Neck rigidity is seen in ………………
Answer. Meningitis
36. Drugs causing Cushing’s syndrome is ………………
Answer. Glucocorticoid drugs
37. Full form of HIV is ………………
Answer. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
38. Trigeminal neuralgia occur due to involvement of ……………… Cranial nerve.
Answer. Fifth nerve
39. Full form of ARDS is ………………
Answer. Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
40. Infectious mononucleosis occurs due to ………………
Answer. EpsteinBarr virus
41. Pneumothorax means………………
Answer. Collection of air in chest or pleural cavity
42. Thyrotoxicosis means………………
Answer. Excess of thyroid hormone in body
43. Cranial nerves originating from Pons are ……………… and ………………
Answer. Trigeminal nerve and facial nerve
44. Hepatitis B causes cancers of ………………
Answer. Liver
45. Drugs used in treatment of herpes zoster is ………………
Answer. Acyclovir
46. Meningococcal meningitis is caused by ………………
Answer. Bacterium Neisseria meningitidis
47. Algid malaria presents with ………………
Answer. Hemodynamic disorders as shock with pronounced metabolic changes and hypothermia.
48. Acromegaly is caused by ………………
Answer. Excessive secretion of growth hormone
49. Vitamin A defiiency causes………………
Answer. Night blindness
50. Drug used in treatment of trigeminal neuralgia………………
Answer. Carbamazepine
51. The most common cause of hyperthyroidism is ………………
Answer. Grave’s disease and toxic nodular goiter
52. Nephrotic syndrome is increased excretion of ……………… in urine
Answer. Protein
53. Good pasture’s syndrome is simultaneous involvement of ……………… and lungs.
Answer. Kidney
54. Syphilis is caused by………………
Answer. Treponema pallidum
55. Drug used in treatment of petit mal epilepsy ………………
Answer. Ethosuximide, valproic acid and clonazepam
56. The most common cause of hepatitis is………………
Answer. Virus
57. Commonest cause of cirrhosis in India is ………………
Answer. Alcohol
58. Caput medusa is seen in………………
Answer. Umbilicus
59. Emphysema is commonly seen in………………
Answer. Smokers
60. Clubbing is obliteration of ………………
Answer. Nailbeds
61. JVP stands for………………
Answer. Jugular venous pressure
62. Idiopathic facial palsy is called as………………
Answer. Bell’s palsy
63. Vitamin D defiiency caused……………… in children.
Answer. Rickets
64. ARDS stands for ………………
Answer. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
65. Peptic ulcer is caused by………………
Answer. Helicobacter pylori
66. Janeway lesions are seen in………………
Answer. Palms or soles in infective endocarditis
67. Bald tongue is the feature of………………
Answer. Iron defiiency anemia
68. Tuberculosis is caused by………………
Answer. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
69. The most common cause of lower motor neuron type of facial palsy is ………………
Answer. Trauma
70. Single most important etiological factor for COPD is………………
Answer. Smoking
71. Pulse rate in hypothyroidism is ………………
Answer. Slow
72. Hookworm infestation causes ……………… anemia
Answer. Nutritional
73. Viral cause of bilateral parotid enlargement is………………
Answer. Mumps
74. Neck stiffess and Kernig’s sign is seen in………………
Answer. Meningitis
75. The most common organism causing community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is ………………
Answer. Mycobacterium pneumonia
76. Addison’s disease occurs due to deficiency of ………………
Answer. Adrenocorticoids
77. Arthritis of acute rheumatic fever is………………
Answer. Polyarthritis
78. Common infective cause of jaundice is………………
Answer. Viral
79. Osler nodes are seen in………………
Answer. Infective endocarditis
80. Drug used for trigeminal neuralgia is ………………
Answer. Carbamazepine
81. Cerebral malaria is caused by………………
Answer. Plasmodium falciparum
82. Endocrine disorder that causes macroglossia (large tongue) is ………………
Answer. Acromegaly
83. CommonadverseeffctofACEinhibitoris………………
Answer. Profound hypotension
84. For diagnosis of nephritic syndrome 24 hours urinary protein should be ………………
Answer. More than 3.5 g/day
85. Preferred route of drug delivery for treatment of bronchial asthma is………………
Answer. Inhalation
86. Pneumothorax is collection of air in ………………
Answer. Pleural cavity
87. Night blindness is caused by defiiency of ……………
Answer. Vitamin A
88. Changes in nail in patient with broncheictasis is ………………
Answer. Clubbing
89. In vitamin B12 deficiency the color of tongue is ………………
Answer. Beefy or firy red
90. The infection of measles is spreaded by ……………… method
Answer. Airborne
91. The diagnostic feature of diphtheriais …………… on tonsil
Answer. Presence of grayish green membrane
92. The most important etiological factor of cirrhosis liver is………………
Answer. Alcohol
93. Enteric fever is caused by………………
Answer. Salmonella typhi
94. In upper motor neuron type of facial palsy,this……………… half of the face is spared.
Answer. Upper
95. The type of anemia of renal origin is……………… Type.
Answer. Normocytic normochromic
96. The name of fist cranial nerve is………………
Answer. Olfactory
97. In……………… air and flid both are present in pleural cavity.
Answer. Pleural effusion
98. In pneumonia (consolidation), the type of breathing is………………
Answer. Bronchial
99. ……………… is an important sign of meningitis.
Answer. Stif neck
100. In jaundice, the level of……………… is increased.
Answer. Bilirubin
101. Black water fever is a complication of………………
Answer. Malaria
102. In hypothyroidism, the pulse rate is………………
Answer. Slow
103. Beriberi is caused by the defiiency of………………
Answer. Vitamin B
104. ……………… is an important clinical feature of lung abscess and bronchiectasis.
Answer. Chronic lung sepsis
105. In thyrotoxicosis, the level of……………… is decreased.
Answer. TSH
106. ……………… is the most common cause of bleeding gums.
Answer. Vitamin C defiiency
107. Retinopathy is a complication of……………… andis………………
Answer. Diabetes mellitus and hypertension
108. The most common complication of mitral stenosis is………………
Answer. Acute pulmonary edema
109. Ascites is present in the……………… cavity.
Answer. Peritoneal
110. Diphtheria is caused by………………
Answer. Bacterium corynebacterium diphtheriae
111. Aminoglycoside antibiotics are (name………………
Answer. Streptomycin, Gentamycin, Tobramycin, Amikacin,Kanamycin, Sisomicin, Neomycin, Framycetin and Netilmicin
112. Composition of oral rehydration salt/solution is………………
Answer.
Sodium chloride – 2. 6 g
Potassium chloride – 1.5 g
Sodium citrate – 2.9 g
Glucose – 13.5 gm
Water – 1 L
113. Drug of choice for amoebiosis is………………
Answer. Diloxanide fuorate
114. Write down the common investigation for day-to-day tooth extraction are………………
Answer. CBC, FBS and PPBS, Rapid HbSAg, Rapid HIV
115. Write down three salient features of Graves, disease……………………..
Answer. Diffuse goiter, sign and symptoms of hypothyroidism,Exopthalmosis, pretibial myxedema
116. Three commonly prescribed antimalarials are………………
Answer. Quinine, chloroquine, artemisinin
117. Drugs contraindicated in asthma patients are……………
Answer. NSAIDs and β-blockers
118. Three clinical features of AIDS are…………………….
Answer. Weight loss, anorexia, night sweats
119. Two clinical features of Stevens Johnson syndrome are…………………….
Answer. Involvement of oral, genital, ocular and nasal involvement, Nikolsky’s sign is positive
120. Write down fie anti-tubercular medicines of short course therapy…………………
Answer. Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol,Streptomycin
121. Three common clinical features of migraine…………………
Answer. Unilateral, episodic, throbbing headache associated with nausea, vomiting and visual disturbances; Females are more affcted as compared to males; frequency of each attck is from hours to days.
122. Drug of choice, doses and duration of treatment for herpes zoster……………
Answer. Acyclovir, 800 mg, 5 times a day for a week
123. Clinical features (any five) of cirrhosis of liver……………
Answer. Ascites, painless hepatomegaly, palmer erythema, loss of libido, presence of mildtomoderate jaundice
124. Three commonly used medicines for acid peptic disease are……………
Answer. H2 receptor antagonists, protonpump inhibitors,mucosal protective agents
125. Prophylaxis of rheumatic fever is with ……………
Answer. Amoxicillin 50 mg/kg (max, 1 g) orally once daily for 10 days
126. Three clinical features of acromegaly are……………
Answer. Macroglossia, arthropathy, myopathy
127. Complications of recurrent rheumatic fever episodes are………………
Answer. Atrial firillation, mitral stenosis, mitral regurgitation and heart failure
128. Three clinical features of acute nephritis are…………..
Answer. Hypertension, edema over face, oliguria
129. 2 common causes of agranulocytes areis………………
Answer. Use of cytotoxic drugs, irradiation
130. Drugs of choice for epilepsy are (any twois………………
Answer. Carbamazepine, phenytoin
131. BMI (Body mass index) is calculated by formula is………………
Answer. Weight + Height (kg/m2)
132. Four common causes of cervical lymphadenopathy are ………………
Answer. Syphilis, tuberculosis, herpes simplex infection,lymphoma
133. Mention causes of strawberry gingivitis is………………
Answer. Wegner’s granulomatosis
134. Mention causes of strawberry tongue is………………
Answer. Scarlet fever
135. Mention causes of bald tongue is………………
Answer. Pernicious anemia
136. Mention causes of cobblestoning of buccal mucosa is……………
Answer. Crohn’s disease
137. Mention causes of diffuse melanin pigmentation is………………
Answer. Physiologic oral pigmentation
138. Mention causes of honeycomb plaques is ……………
Answer. Lupus erythematosus
139. Mention causes of flating teeth is………………
Answer. Cherubism
140. The infection of syphilis is caused by………………
Answer. Treponema pallidum
141. Amoebiasis is caused by………………
Answer. Entamoeba histolytica
142. The name of fith cranial nerve is………………
Answer. trigeminal nerve
143. In is……………… air and pus both are present in pleural cavity.
Answer. Pyopneumothorax
144. HIV infection is caused by………………
Answer. HIV1 or HIV2 viruses
145. The flid in peritoneal cavity is called as………………
Answer. Ascites
146. Diphtheria is caused by………………
Answer. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
147.Dysphagia means the diffilty in ………………
Answer. Swallowing
148. PEM meansis………………
Answer. Protein-energy malnutrition
149. The lower motor neuron type of facial palsy is also known as………………
Answer. Bell’s palsy
150. The thiamine defiiency causes………………
Answer. Wet beriberi and dry beriberi
151. In mitral stenosis, the fist heart sound is………………
Answer. Loud
152. TSH is……………… in hypothyroidism.
Answer. Increased
153. Peripheral neuropathy is the complication of……………
Answer. Diabetes mellitus
154. ……………… bronchial breathing suggests the presence of cavity in the lung.
Answer. Tubular
155. Mumps is the infection of………………
Answer. Parotid gland
156. Mattd lymph nodes are present in………………
Answer. Tuberculosis
157. The most common cause of endocarditis is………………
Answer. Streptococci
158. Normal serum creatinine level is less than…………mg.
Answer. 1.5
159. Bradycardia means the pulse rate less than ……………..beats per minute.
Answer. 60
160. Cerebral malaria is a complication of………………
Answer. Plasmodium falciparum
161. Halitosis is present in………………
Answer. Oral cavity
162. Megaloblastic anemiais caused by vitamin………………… deficiency
Answer. B12
163. Name of the 7th cranial nerve is………………….
Answer. Facial nerve
164. Presence of blood in urine……………………
Answer. Hematuria
165. Aspirin is………………..drug.
Answer. Antiplatelet
166. BCG vaccine is given to prevent……………………..
Answer. Tuberculosis
167. HIV stands for…………………
Answer. Human immunodefiiency virus
168. In dengue,…………………(blood component) is decreased
Answer. Platelet
169. Diagnostic feature of diphtheria is ……………….. on tonsil.
Answer. Grey membrane
170. Increase steroid intake can cause………………. Facies.
Answer. Moon
171. Massive proteinuria is found in……………….syndrome.
Answer. Nephrotic
172. Heart beat of less than 60 beats/min is called…………….
Answer. Bradycardia
173.……………… is an important sign of meningitis.
Answer. Brudzinski’s sign
174. Malaria spread by bite of………………..
Answer. Infected Anopheles mosquito
175. Sydenham’s chorea is found in……………..
Answer. Rheumatic fever
176. Erythropoietin is produced by………………
Answer. Kidney
177. Most common valve involvement in RHD is…………………..
Answer. Aortic valve
178. Pellagra is caused by deficiency of vita min……………………
Answer. B3 or niacin
179. Acromegaly is caused by……………….. hormone excess.
Answer. Growth
180. R etinopathy is complication of……………. and…………….
Answer. Diabetes mellitus and hypertension
181. Warfarin causes prolongation of……………………time.
Answer. Prothrombin
182. In leukemia, ……………….count is decreased.
Answer. RBC
183. Cirrhosis is caused by hepatitis……………. and ………….. virus.
Answer. B and C
184. To diagnose hypothyroidism, test used is……………..
Answer. Thyroid function test
185. Pulmonary tuberculosis is caused by………………..
Answer. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
186. Three causes of stomatitis are………………..
Answer. Cheek bite, trauma due to dentures, viral infection i.e.herpes, chemotherapy treatment for cancer
187.Beri Beri is due to defiiency of……………….
Answer. Vitamin B
188. Causative organism of syphilis is………………….
Answer. Treponema pallidum
189. Drug of choice in anaphylaxis is…………………
Answer. Epinephrine
190. Cause of rheumatic fever is……………….
Answer. Group A Treptococcus
191. Megaloblastic anemia is due to deficiency of…………………
Answer. Vitamin B12
192. Syncope is due to………………..
Answer. Insufiient flow of blood to brain
193. Features of nephrotic syndrome are…………….
Answer. Proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, hypercholesterolemia
194. Endocarditis is an inflmmation of………………
Answer. Endocardium
195. Scurvy is due to defiiency of………………..
Answer. Vitamin C
196. Three clinical features of portal hypertension………………….
Answer. Ascites, splenomegaly, esophageal varices, hematemesis
197. Drug of choice in herpes zoster is…………………..
Answer. Acyclovir
198. Agranulocytosis means…………….
Answer. Decrease in neutrophil number
199. CPR means………………..
Answer. Cardiac pulmonary resuscitation
200. Master of endocrine orchestra is…………………..
Answer. Pituitary gland
201. Three common cardiac arrhythmias are……………….
Answer. Atrial firillation, ventricular tachycardia, paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
202. Three common heart diseases are…………………
Answer. Hear failure, heart valvular disease, congenital heart disease
203. Body temperature is regulated by………………
Answer. Hypothalamus
204. Hyperhidrosis means………………..
Answer. Increased sweating
205. Grave’s disease is due to………………..
Answer. Hyperthyroidism
206. Painful deglutition is known as………………….
Answer. Dysphagia
207. Beriberi is caused by defiiency of……………….
Answer. Vitamin B1
208. Molluscum contagiosum is a……………….illness.
Answer. Viral
209. Tarry black stools are known as……………
Answer. Melena
210. Hemoptysis is blood in………………
Answer. Cough
211. Leprosy is caused by…………………
Answer. Mycobacterium lepare
212. Vitamin C defiiency causes…………..
Answer. Scurvy
213. Dengue is caused by bite of………………….mosquito.
Answer. Aedes
214. Peptic ulcer is caused by this organism………………….
Answer. H. pylori
215. Cholera is …………….borne disease.
Answer. Water
216. In nephrotic syndrome, this is lost in urine………………
Answer. Protein
217. Hemophilia is treated with injection of………………
Answer. Factor VIII or factor IX
218. Fluconazole is a…………… drug.
Answer. Antifungal
219. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by…………………..
Answer. Defiiency of vitamin B12
220. Inhalational steroids are used in…………………
Answer. Bronchial asthma
221. Enumerate four first-line antitubercular drugs …………………
Answer. Isoniazid, Rifampin, Ethambutol, Streptomycin
222. Treadmill test is done to diagnose……………………
Answer. Effects of exercise on heart
223. EEG is done in the neurological condition………………
Answer. Seizure disorder
224. Enteric fever is diagnosed by the test………………..
Answer. Widal
225. CD4 counts are done for monitoring this disease……………….
Answer. AIDS
226. Liver transplant is usually indicated for……………….
Answer. Liver failure
227.Which drug should be avoided indengue………………?
Answer. Aspirin
228. In primary hypothyroidism,………………… is increased.
Answer. TSH
229. Name of the fith cranial nerve is………….
Answer. Trigeminal
230. Malaria is caused by the bite of………………….
Answer. Anopheles mosquito
231. Oral ulcer, cheilosis mainly caused by the defiiency of……………….vitamin.
Answer. B2 (Riboflvin)
232. Diagnostic feature of diphtheria is……………….. on tonsil.
Answer. Pseudomembrane
233. Heparin is……………..
Answer. Anticoagulant
234. Carditis is feature of…………………
Answer. Rheumatic fever
235. In AIDS,…………….count is decreased.
Answer. Lymphocyte
236. Difficulty in deglutition is called as………………
Answer. Dysphagia
237. Fluid in pleural cavity is known as…………….
Answer. Pleural effsion
238. Fever, neck rigidity, vomiting, headache are the features of…………………
Answer. Meningitis
239. In cirrhosis which organ is mainly involved……………….
Answer. Liver
240. Heart rate > 100 is known as………………….
Answer. Tachycardia
241. Gum hypertrophy is side effct of which anti-epileptic drug……………….
Answer. Dilantin sodium
242. Swine fl is caused by……………………virus.
Answer. H1N1
243. Painless oral ulcer found in……………..connective tissue disease.
Answer. Systemic lupus erythematosus
244. Tetany is caused by defiiency of………………………..
Answer. Calcium
245. Increase steroid intake can cause…………………….facies.
Answer. Moon
246. Blood in vomiting is called as………………..
Answer. hemoptysis
247. Yellow discoloration of sclera is……………
Answer. Jaundice
248. Koilonychia is found in…………………deficiency anemia.
Answer. Iron
249. Rifampin drug is used in …………………
Answer. Tuberculosis.
Viva-Voce Questions For Practical Examination
Question:1. Name the route of infection caused by Hepatitis E virus.
Answer. Fecooral route
Question 2. Name the hepatitis virus which spreads by parenteral route.
Answer. Hepatitis B, C and D
Question 3. Name the carcinoma by which Epstein-Barr virus is associated with.
Answer. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Question:4. Name the disease in which transaminase levels get raised.
Answer. Myocardial infarction
Question:5.Which type of a virus is herpes virus?
Answer. DNA virus
Question:6.Which type of virus is HIV virus?
Answer. It is a retro virus
Question:7. What is the incubation period of hepatitis B virus infection?
Answer. Incubation period is 1 to 6 months
Question:8. Name the cells which get decreased in AIDS.
Answer. CD4, i.e. below 200/mm3
Question:9. After how much duration of infection; the HIV is positive in the serological test?
Answer. 8 weeks
Question 10. What is the most common route of transmission of AIDS?
Answer. Heterosexual contact
Question:11. Name the test by which HIV is detected and also get confimed.
Answer. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) method
Question:12. Name the most common neoplasm which occur in HIV positive homosexual males.
Answer. Glomus tumor
Question:13.What do you mean by scrofula?
Answer. Tuberculosis of lymph nodes
Question:14. What is the route of spread of tubercle bacilli in the military tuberculosis.
Answer. Bloodstream
Question:15. Which physiological system does tertiary syphilis affects?
Answer. Central nervous system
Question 16. Which type of ulcer is seen on the male genitalia in primary syphilis?
Answer. A punched out ulcer
Question 17. Name the type of ulcers seen in amoebiasis.
Answer. Flaskshaped
Question:18. In which disease does Koplik spots appear.
Answer. Measles
Question:19. On which day rashes of measles occur.
Answer. On fourth day
Question 20. Name the fist sensation which becomes lost in leprosy.
Answer. Temperature
Question 21. In which diseases does neutropenia occur.
Answer. Typhoid, viral infection, protozoal infections,agranulocytosis
Question 22. In which age group does mumps commonly occur.
Answer. Children
Question 23. Name the virus which leads to chickenpox.
Answer. Varicella zoster virus
Question:24. In which disease, rose spots are seen.
Answer. Typhoid
Question:25. Which disease of show bitot spots?
Answer. Vitamin A deficiency
Question:26. What is lupus vulgaris.
Answer. It is the cutaneous tuberculosis
Question:27.What is Potts disease?
Answer. It is the tuberculosis of spine
Question:28.What is Ghon’s focus?
Answer. It is the presence of subpleural focus in primary tubercular granuloma along with central caseation.
Question:29.What is Ghon’s complex?
Answer. It is the Ghon’s focus along with regional lymph node involvement.
Question:30.Name the fist earliest manifestation of tetanus.
Answer. Trismus
Question:31. Name the neurotoxin which is released by Clostridium tetani.
Answer. Tetanospasmin
Question 32. What is C reactive protein?
Answer. It is the acute phase reactant, which is synthesized by the liver, it opsonizes invading pathogens
Question 33. Name the drug of choice of trigeminal neuralgia.
Answer. Carbamazepine
Question:34. What is the other name of trigeminal neuralgia?
Answer. Tic douloureux, and Fothergill’s disease
Question:35.What is Parkinsonism?
Answer. It is the disease caused by the depletion of pigmented dopaminergic neurons in substantia nigra, Lewy bodies and atropic changes in substantia nigra.
Question:36.Which is the drug of choice for partial and tonic clonic seizures?
Answer. Phenytoin
Question:37.What do you mean by hematuria?
Answer. It is the presence of RBCs in urine.
Question:38.Which is the earliest marker appearing in serum in acute hepatitis B infection.
Answer. HBsAg
Question:39.What is tetany.
Answer. It occur due to hypocalcemia and there is stridor due to spasm of glotts and not dysphagia.
Question:40. Which is the most common bacterial infection in general medical practice.
Answer. Urinary tract infection
Question 41. Name the triad of symptoms in portal hypertension.
Answer. Ascites, splenomegaly and esophageal varices
Question:42. In which disease, there is increase in level of SGOT.
Answer. In liver disease
Question:43. Why icterus is more marked in sclera.
Answer. It is white
Question:44.In which disease does dark color urine and clay stool is visible?
Answer. Obstructive jaundice
Question:45 which type of jaundice does conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin get raised?
Answer. Hepatocellular jaundice
Question:46.Name the blood coagulation factor whose defiiency leads to classical hemophilia or hemophilia A.
Answer. Factor VIII
Question:47.Name the blood coagulation factor whose defiiency leads to Christmas disease or hemophilia B.
Answer.Factor IX
Question:48.Name the blood coagulation factor whose defiiency leads to hemophilia C.
Answer. Factor XI
Question:49.Name the blood coagulation factor whose defiiency leads to vascular hemophilia or Von Willebrand disease.
Answer.Von Willebrand factor
Question:50.Name the blood coagulation factor, whose defiiency leads to parahemophilia.
Answer. Factor V
Question:51. As patients of hemophilia get operated what is given them to stop surgical bleeding?
Answer. Factor VIII concentrate
Question:52. Name the disease in which bleeding time is prolonged.
Answer. Thrombocytopenic purpura and Von Willebrand disease
Question:53.How much is the normal platelet count?
Answer. It is 1.5 to 4 lakhs/cumm of blood.
Question:54.What is critical count of platelet?
Answer. When count of platelet is below 40000/mm3 it is critical count of platelet.
Question:55.What is thrombocytopenic purpura?
Answer. It is the abnormal decrease in the count of platelets.
Question:56.Name the components, which get destroyed in the blood.
Answer. WBC, clottng factors and platelets
Question:57.Name the diseases which constitute hemoglobinopathies.
Answer. Sickle cell anemia and thalassemia
Question:58.Name the cardinal features of diabetic ketoacidosis.
Answer. Hyperglycemia, hyperketonemia and metabolic acidosis
Question:59.What is osteoporosis?
Answer. This is a disease which is characterized by decrease in the bone mass, microarchitectural destruction of bone and there is increased risk of fracture.
Question:60.Name the drugs used in treatment of osteoporosis.
Answer. Bisphosphonates
Question:61.What is glycosylated hemoglobin?
Answer. It gives an accurate and objective measure of glycemic control over period of weeks to months.
Question:62.What is Philadelphia chromosome?
Answer. It is the chromosome, which is associated with chronic myeloid leukemia.
Question:63. What is the hallmark of obstructive lung disease.
Answer. Decreased expiratory flw rate
Question:64.What is Kussmaul breathing?
Answer. It is the increase in both the rate and depth of respiration in diabetic ketoacidosis and anemia.
Question:65.What is the surfactant?
Answer. It reduces the surface tension and counteract tendency of alveoli to collapse
Question:66. What is asthma?
Answer. It is the disorder, which is characterized by the chronic airway obstruction as well as increased airway responsiveness which leads to wheeze, breathlessness,
cough, chest tightness
Question:67.What is emphysema?
Answer. It is the pathological process in which there is permanent destructive enlargement of spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles.
Question:68.What is pleural effsion?
Answer. It is the accumulation of serous flid in pleural space
Question:69. What is Ghon’s focus?
Answer. It is the unilateral solitary area of consolidation of tuberculus inside the pleura in lower part of upper lobe.
Question:70. Name the most common site for deep vein thrombosis.
Answer. Calf vein
Question:71.What is lobar pneumonia?
Answer. It is the radiological and pathological term which refers to the homogeneous consolidation of one or more lung lobes.
Question:72.What is bronchiectasis?
Answer. It is the irreversible dilation of bronchi
Question:73.What happens in the clubbing?
Answer. In clubbing, the normal angle between proximal part of nail and skin become lost.
Question:74.What is hemoptysis?
Answer. It is the coughing of the Frank blood.
Question:75.What is hematemesis?
Answer. It is the vomiting of the altered blood.
Question:76.What is epistaxis?
Answer. It refers to the bleeding from the nose.
Question:77.What is malena?
Answer. It refers to the dark tarry colored stools.
Question:78.What do you mean by stable angina.
Answer. When there is an imbalance between the myocardial oxygen supply and demand, stable angina occur.
Question:79.What do you mean by unstable angina.
Answer. It is the rapidly worsening angina when patient is on rest.
Question:80.Name the most common congenital heart disease.
Answer. Ventricular septal defect.
Question:81.Name the most common congenital cyanotic heart disease.
Answer. Tetralogy of Fallot
Question:82.Name the most common cause of acute rheumatic fever.
Answer. β-hemolytic streptococci
Question:83. Name the most common complication of subacute bacterial endocarditis.
Answer. Thromboembolism
Question:84.What do you mean by tachycardia and bradycardia?
Answer. When heart beat is more than 100 beats per min, it is known as tachycardia and when heart beat is less than 60 per min, it is known as bradycardia.
Question:85.What do you mean by cyanosis?
Answer. Cyanosis is the bluish discoloration of nails because of increased amount of reduced hemoglobin in the capillary blood.
Question:86.What is coarctation of aorta?
Answer. It is the narrowing of aorta at isthmus just below the origin of left subclavian artery
Question:87.Name the most common heart valve involved in IV drug abuse.
Answer. Tricuspid valve
Question:88.What is pulsus paradoxus?
Answer. It is the dramatic fall in blood pressure due to inspiration.
Question:89.What do you mean by hypertensiv urgency?
Answer. It is defied as the marked elevation of blood pressure without the end organ damage.
Question:90.What do you mean by hypertensive emergency?
Answer. It is defied as the marked elevation of blood pressure with end organ damage.
Question:91.Name the microorganism which leads to dental caries,infective endocarditis and atherosclerosis?
Answer. Streptococcus mutans
Question:92.What do you mean by sinus tachycardia?
Answer. It is the sinus rate of more than 100 beats per min.
Question:93.What do you mean by hemochromatosis?
Answer. It is the condition in which total body iron get increased.
Question:94.What do you mean by bronze diabetes?
Answer. It is the diabetes mellitus which is associated with hemochromatosis with iron deposit in skin, liver,pancreas and other viscera
Question:95.What is gout?
Answer. It is the condition which is characterized by the recurrent attck of acute inflmmatory arthritis.
Question:96.Which node does act as a pacemaker?
Answer. SA node
Question:97.What is pulsus alternans?
Answer. It is the strong and weak beat which occur alternatively.
Question:98.What is pulsus bisferiens?
Answer. It is the rapidly rising amd two time beating pulse whose both the waves are felt at the time of systole.
Question:99.What is pulsus tardus?
Answer. It is felt in aortic stenosis.
Question:100.What is trilogy of Fallot?
Answer. It is the combination of ventricular septal defect,pulmonary stenosis and overriding of aorta.
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