Oral Pathology Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

Oral Pathology Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

1. Fordyce’s granules actually are collection of:

1. Salivary gland tissue
2. Sweat gland
3. Sebaceous gland
4. Fatt tissue

Answer: 3. Sebaceous gland

2. In the lesion of median rhomboid glossitis, there is absence of:

1. Filiform and foliate papillae
2. Fungiform and fiiform papillae
3. Circumvallate and fungiform papillae
4. Circumvallate papillae

Answer: 2. Fungiform and fiiform papillae

oral pathology MCQs

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3. Enzyme considered to be of special importance in establishment of S. mutans in dental plaque is:

1. Glucosyltransferase
2. Fructosyltransferase
3. Dextranase
4. lnvertase

Answer: 3. Dextranase

4. “Dead tracts” in-ground section of teeth, are manifested as:

1. White zone in transmitted light and black zone in reflected light.
2. Black zone in transmitted light and white zone in reflected light.
3. White zone in transmitted light and reflected light
4. Black zone in transmitted light and reflected light.

Answer: 2. Black zone in transmitted light and white zone in reflected light.

5. Which of the following drugs may cause gingival enlargement:

1. Nifedipine
2. Cyclosporine
3. Phenytoin sodium
4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

6. Apoptosis of basal cell layer is a feature of:

• Psoriasis
• Pemphigus
• Lichen planus
• Erythema multiforme

Answer: 3. Lichen planus

7. White strawberry tongue is a feature of:

• Scarlet fever
• Syphilis
• Herpetic glossitis
• Pemphigus

Answer: 1. Scarlet fever

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8. Ramsay Hunt’s syndrome is associated with:

• Herpes simplex
• Herpes zoster
• Mumps
• Measles

Answer: 2.Herpes zoster

9. Most common cells affected in HIV patients are:

• CD 1 and 2
• CD 4 and 8
• CD 5 and 12
• CD 2 and 4

Answer: 2. CD 4 and 8

10. Hansen’s disease is a:

1. Syphilis
2. Candidiasis
3. Tuberculosis
4. Leprosy

Answer: 4. Leprosy

11.In xerostomia, the salivary pH is:

1. Unaffected
2. Low
3. High
4. Increased in morning and decreases in day

Answer: 2.  Low

12. Organisms involved in cellulitis is:

• S. mutants
• S. pyogenes
• Pneumococci
• Kiebsieiia

Answer: 2.S. pyogenes

13. Which is the following are a triad of the sign and symptoms of osteogenesis imperfecta:

1. Blue sclera, sparse hair, anhydrosis
2. Enlarged hand, feet, maxilla, mandible
3. Blue sclera, britte bones, opalescent dentin
4. Blue sclera, arachnodactyly, britte bone.

Answer: 3. Blue sclera, brittle bones, opalescent dentin

14. Starry sky appearance is seen in:

1. Paget’s disease
2. Cherubism
3. Garry’s osteomyelitis
4. Burkitts lymphoma

Answer: 4. Burkitts lymphoma

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15. Acanthosis is:

1. Increase in mitotic division
2. Increase in thickness of superficial layer
3. Increase in thickness of spinous layer
4. Disruption of basal lamina

Answer: 3. Increase in thickness of spinous layer

16. Areca nut chewing is aetiological factor in:

1. Leukoedema
2. Oral submucous fibrosis
3. Erythema multiforme
4. Oral lichen planus

Answer: 2. Oral submucous firosis

17. Ameloblastoma most frequently occurs in:

1. Mandibular molar region
2. Maxillary molar region
3. Mandibular premolar region
4. Maxillary premolar region

Answer: 1. Mandibular molar region

18. One of them is not a true cyst:

1. Hemorrhagic cyst
2. Median palatine
3. Globulomaxillary
4. Nasolabial

Answer: 1. Hemorrhagic cyst

19. Three stages in progression of acute odontogenic infection are:

1. Periapical osteitis, cellulitis, abscess
2. Abscess, cellulitis, periapical osteitis
3. Cellulitis, abscess, periapical osteitis
4. Periapical osteitis, abscess, cellulitis

Answer: 1. Periapical osteitis, cellulitis, abscess

20. Cyst with high recurrence rate:

1. Keratocyst
2. Primordial
3. Lateral Periodontal
4. Radicular cyst

Answer: 1. Keratocyst

21. An inability to absorb adequate amount of vitamin B12 from digestive tract may result in:

1. Thalassemia
2. Pernicious anemia
3. Aplastic anemia
4. None of these

Answer: 2.Pernicious anemia

22. Howell­Jolly bodies are seen in:

1. Malaria
2. Pernicious anemia
3. Iron deficiency anemia
4. Leukemia

Answer: 2. Pernicious anemia

23. On stretching, the cheeks lesion disappears in:

1. Leukoplakia
2. Focal hyperkeratosis
3. Leukoedema
4. Typhoid

Answer: 1. Leukoplakia

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24. The microscopic features of leukoedema consist of:

1. Increase in thickness of epithelium
2. Intracellular edema of spinous or malphigian layer
3. Broad rete ridges
4. All of the above

Answer: 2. Intracellular edema of spinous or malphigian layer

25. Greenspan syndrome is associated with:

1. Dyskeratosis congenita
2. Psoriasis
3. Leukoplakia
4. Lichen planus

Answer: 4. Lichen planus

26. Carpet track extensions are seen in:

1. Sarcoidosis
2. Systemic sclerosis
3. Discoid lupus erythematosus
4. Erythema multiforme

Answer: 3. Discoid lupus erythematosus

27. Serum alkaline phosphatase levels are seen in:

1. Osteoarthritis
2. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
3. Paget’s disease
4. Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer: 3. Paget’s disease

28. Strawberry tongue is associated with:

1. Syphilis
2. Measles
3. Scarlet fever
4. Typhoid

Answer: 3. Scarlet fever

29. Which of the following cyst develops in place of tooth:

1. Primordial cyst
2. Dentigerous cyst
3. Keratocyst
4. Radicular cyst

Answer: 1. Primordial cyst

30. Cyst having high recurrence rate is:

1. Dentigerous cyst
2. Primordial cyst
3. Odontogenic keratocyst
4. Radicular cyst

Answer: 3. Odontogenic keratocyst

31. The most common form of actinomycosis is:

1. Cervicofacial
2. Abdominal
3. Pulmonary
4. Any of the above

Answer: 1. Cervicofacial

32. Virus which may cause Burkitt lymphoma is:

1. HSV Type­II
2. Cytomegalovirus
3. Epstein­Barr virus
4. Varicella Zoster virus

Answer: 3. Epstein­Barr virus

33. Radiographic appearance of osteosarcoma is:

1. Sunray appearance
2. Onion­peel appearance
3. Honeycomb appearance
4. Ground glass appearance

Answer: 1. Sunray appearance

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34. Presence of Bence-Jones protein in urine is characteristic of:

1. Multiple myeloma
2. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
3. Burkitts lymphoma
4. Hemangioma

Answer: 1. Multiple myeloma

35. A union of roots of adjacent teeth through the cementum is referred to as:

1. Concrescence
2. Fusion
3. Gemination
4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Concrescence

36. Teeth that erupt in 30 days of birth are called as:

1. Natal teeth
2. Neonatal teeth
3. Primary teeth
4. Prenatal teeth

Answer: 2. Neonatal teeth

37. Talon’s cusp is characteristic of which syndrome:

1. Edward’s syndrome
2. Kinefelter’s syndrome
3. Rubinstein­Taybi syndrome
4. Down’s syndrome

Answer: 3. Rubinstein­Taybi syndrome

38. Desquamative gingivitis may be seen in all of the following except:

1. Pemphigus Vulgaris
2. Recurrent aphthae
3. Erythema multiforme
4. Cicatricial pemphigoid

Answer: 2. Recurrent aphthae

39. Organism in etiology of ANUG:

1. Cocci and bacilli
2. Bacilli and bacteriophage
3. Spirochete and bacilli
4. Bacteriophage and cocci

Answer: 3. Spirochete and Bacilli

40. Areca nut chewing is an etiological factor in:

1. Leukoedema
2. Oral submucous fibrosis
3. Erythema multiforme
4. Lichen planus

Answer: 2. Oral submucous fibrosis

oral pathology multiple choice questions

41. Which of the following disease is characterized by fever, headache, sore throat and formation of pseudomembrane in pharynx:

1. Scarlet fever
2. Tuberculosis
3. Cancrum oris
4. Diphtheria

Answer: 4. Diphtheria

42. Tuberculosis of lymph nodes is known as:

1. Lupus vulgaris
2. Phthisis
3. Scrofula
4. Miliary tuberculosis

Answer: 3. Scrofula

43. Ghost teeth is seen in which of the following:

1. Dens in dente
2. Regional odontodysplasia
3. Dentin dysplasia
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Regional odontodysplasia

oral pathology questions and answers

44. In Ramsay Hunt syndrome the crania nerve involved is:

1. Trigeminal
2. Facial
3. Glossopharyngeal
4. Oculomotor

Answer: 2. Facial

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45. Cherubism is associated with:

1. Down’s syndrome
2. Edward syndrome
3. Patau syndrome
4. Noonan’s syndrome

Answer: 4. Noonan’s syndrome

46. Which of the following is not a benign tumor of salivary glands:

1. Pleomorphic adenoma
2. Myoepithelioma
3. Sialadenosis
4. Cystadenoma

Answer: 3. Sialadenosis

dental pathology MCQs

47. All of the following are true about pulp polyp except:

1. Excessive, exuberant proliferation of chronically inflamed dental pulp tissues
2. Generally occur in children and young adults
3. Lesion is tender
4. Teeth most commonly involved are deciduous and permanent fist molar

Answer: 3. Lesion is tender

48. Squamous papilloma is associated with:

1. EBV
2. HIV
3. HPV
4. HSV

Answer: 3. HPV

49. Basal cell nevus syndrome is associated with:

1. Odontogenic keratocyst
2. Dentigerous cyst
3. Radicular cyst
4. Nasopalatine cyst

Answer: 1. Odontogenic keratocyst

50. Carcinoma usually metastatizes by which route:

1. Hematogenous spread
2. Local spread
3. Lymphatic spread
4. Mechanical spread

Answer: 3. Lymphatic spread

BDS oral pathology MCQs

51. Neurofiroma is associated with:

1. MEN syndrome
2. Bechet syndrome
3. Von-Recklinghausen’s disease
4. Cannon’s disease

Answer: 3. Von-Recklinghausen’s disease

52. Malignant melanoma is a neoplasm of:

1. Epidermal melanocytes
2. Spinous cells
3. Basal cells
4. Keratin

Answer: 1. Epidermal melanocytes

53. Most common site for compound odontoma is:

1. Anterior maxilla
2. Posterior maxilla
3. Anterior mandible
4. Posterior mandible

Answer: 1. Anterior maxilla

54. Listed below are all methods to represent bite mark except:

1. Xeroradiography
2. Transillumination
3. Swab test
4. Ultraviolet photography

Answer: 4. Ultraviolet photography

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55. Civatt bodies are also called as:

1. Colloid bodies
2. Cytoid bodies
3. Hyaline bodies
4. All of above

Answer: 4. All of above

56. Which of the following is not type of oral lichen planus:

1. Atrophic
2. Hypertrophic
3. Verrucous
4. Erosion

oral pathology viva questions

Answer: 3. Verrucous

57. Tzanck cells are characteristic of:

1. Pemphigus
2. Pemphigoid
3. Lichen planus
4. SLE

Answer: 1. Pemphigus

58. A flid­filed elevated lesion of skin in called as:

1. Papule
2. Macule
3. Vesicle
4. Nodule

Answer: 3. Vesicle

59. Gingiva is affected mainly by deficiency of vitamin:

1. A
2. B complex
3. C
4. D

Answer: 3. C

60. Silver tattoo is deposition of amalgam in:

1. Bone
2. Dewtin
3. Enamel
4. Mucosa

Answer: 4. Mucosa

61. Brown tumor is seen in:

1. Hyperthyroidism
2. Hyperparathyroidism
3. Diabetes mellitus
4. Acromegaly

Answer: 2. Hyperparathyroidism

62. Rodent ulcers are seen in:

1. Basal cell carcinoma
2. Gangrene
3. Leprosy
4. Syphilis

Answer: 1. Basal cell carcinoma

63. Most common supernumerary tooth is:

1. Mesiodens
2. Paramolar
3. Peridens
4. Lateral incisor

Answer: 1. Mesiodens

64. Most common microbial disease of oral cavity is:

1. Candidiasis
2. Dental caries
3. Carcinoma
4. Aphthous ulcer

Answer: 2. Dental caries

65. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis is also called as:

1. Pulp polyp
2. Acute pulpitis
3. Chronic pulpitis
4. Periapical abscess

Answer: 1. Pulp polyp

“Factors influencing success with oral pathology MCQ practice: Q&A”

66. Screening test is done to determine saliva from secretor is done with:

1. Antigen­A
2. Antigen­B
3. Antigen­H
4. Radioimmunoassay

Answer: 4. Radioimmunoassay

67. All are types of acquired Nevi except:

1. Junctional nevi
2. Compound nevi
3. Blue nevi
4. Garment nevi

Answer: 4. Garment nevi

68. Pregnancy tumor is histologically identical with:

1. Aphthous ulcer
2. Pyogenic granuloma
3. Ameloblastoma
4. Traumatic ulcer

Answer: 2. Pyogenic granuloma

69. Most common site for compound odontoma is:

1. Anterior maxilla
2. Posterior maxilla
3. Anterior mandible
4. Posterior mandible

Answer: 1. Anterior maxilla

70. Which is not the odontogenic cyst:

1. Lateral periodontal cyst
2. Gorlin cyst
3. Traumatic bone cyst
4. Dentigerous cyst

Answer: 3. Traumatic bone cyst

71. ‘Cafe aulait’ spots are present in:

1. Monostotic firous dysplasia
2. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
3. Paget’s disease
4. Cherubism

Answer: 2. Polyostotic firous dysplasia

72. “Rathke’s Pouch tumor” is another name for:

1. Adamantinoma of lung bone
2. Pituitary ameloblastoma
3. Malignant ameloblastoma
4. Ameloblastic carcinoma

Answer: 2. Pituitary ameloblastoma

73. Indentation of human premolar bite mark is:

1. Oval in shape
2. Spherical in shape
3. Dual triangular or deep triangular in shape
4. Square in shape

Answer: 3. Dual triangular or deep triangular in shape

74. Type of ameloblastoma is most aggressive and high recurrence rate:

1. Follicular
2. Plexiform
3. Granular
4. Unicystic

Answer: 1. Follicular

75. Most common odontogenic cyst is:

1. Dentigerous cyst
2. Radicular cyst
3. Keratocyst
4. CEOC

Answer: 2.Radicular cyst

76. Greenspan syndrome includes all except:

1. Lichen planus
2. Diabetes mellitus
3. Hypertension
4. Pemphigus

Answer: 4. Pemphigus

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77. A felt circumscribed discoloration of skin is called as:

1. Macule
2. Ulcer
3. Papule
4. Nodule

Answer: 1. Macule

78.Bull’s eye lesion of hand is seen in:

1. Pemphigus
2. Erythema multiforme
3. Pemphigoid
4. Lichen planus

Answer: 2.Erythema multiforme

79. Acanthosis is a feature of:

1. Pemphigus
2. Erythroplakia
3. Leukoplakia
4. OSMF

Answer: 1. Pemphigus

80. Blue sclera is seen:

1. Marfan’s syndrome
2. Cherubism
3. Osteogenesis imperfecta
4. Vitamin C deficiency

Answer: 3. Osteogenesis imperfecta

81. Turner’s tooth is associated with:

1. Enamel hypoplasia
2. Syphilis
3. Multiple caries
4. Cyst

Answer: 1. Enamel hypoplasia

82. Rushton bodies are seen in:

1. Lichen planus
2. SLE
3. Radicular cyst
4. Dental caries

Answer: 3.

83. ‘Paul­Bunnell’ test is positive in:

1. Infectious mononucleosis
2. Hodgkin’s syndrome
3. Leukemia
4. Glandular fever

Answer: 1. Infectious mononucleosis

84. Fixative commonly used in histopathology techniques is:

1. 10% formalin
2. Dry heat
3. 70% alcohol
4. Saliva

Answer: 1. 10% formalin

85. Caféau lait spots are found in all except:

1. PeutzJeghers syndrome
2. Cherubism
3. Von-Recklinghausen’s disease
4. Fibrous dysplasia

Answer: 4. Fibrous dysplasia

86. Which condition will produce a negative pulp vitality test:

1. Acute reversible pulpitis
2. Apical periodontitis
3. Chronic irreversible pulpitis
4. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis

Answer: 2. Apical periodontitis

87. Which is not a feature of Greenspan’s syndrome:

1. Oral lichen planus
2. Diabetes mellitus
3. Leukoplakia
4. Hypertension

Answer: 3. Leukoplakia

88. Which of the following cannot be used to investigate bite marks:

1. Photography
2. Saliva swap
3. Impression
4. Bite detector

Answer: 4. Bite detector

89. Congenital absence of salivary gland duct is also known as:

1. Aberrancy
2. Aplasia
3. Atresia
4. Xerostomia

Answer: 3. Atresia

90.……….. is not a feature of Sjogren’s syndrome:

1. Rheumatic arthritis
2. Enlargement of salivary gland
3. Xerostomia
4. Keratoconjunctivitis

Answer: 2. Enlargement of salivary gland

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91. Ghost cells are found in:

1. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic cyst
2. Odontogenic cyst
3. Residual cyst
4. Paradental cyst

Answer: 1. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic cyst

92. Codman’s triangle is a characteristic feature of:

1. Chondrosarcoma
2. Ameloblastoma
3. Osteosarcoma
4. Ewing’s sarcoma

Answer: 3. Osteosarcoma

93. Reed­Sternberg cells are characteristic features of:

1. Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
2. Burkitts lymphoma
3. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
4. Adenolymphoma

Answer: 3. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

94. Which of the following method is used to extract dental

1. DNA:
2. Cryogenic method
3. PCR
4. Cheiloscopy
5. DNA fingerprinting

Answer: 2. PCR

95. Which of the following deficiencies are associated with the disorders of hyperplasia of salivary glands and keratinization of salivary glands:

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B
3. Vitamin C
4. Vitamin K

Answer: 1. Vitamin A

96. Talon’s cusp is characteristics of which syndrome:

1. Edward syndrome
2. Klinefelter syndrome
3. Rubenstein Taybi syndrome
4. Down’s syndrome

Answer: 3. Rubenstein Taybi syndrome

97. Koilocytes are:

1. Cytomegalovirus altered epithelial cells
2. Epstein­Barr virus altered cells
3. Human papillomavirus altered cells
4. RNA virus-altered cells

Answer: 3. Human papillomavirus-altered cells

98. Denture sore mouth is caused by:

1. Actinomycosis
2. Candida albicans
3. Blastomycosis
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Candida albicans

99. Hemophilia B is due to a deficiency of:

1. Factor VII
2. Factor IX
3. Platelet
4. Vitamin C

Answer: 2. Factor IX

100. Widely accepted theory of dental caries is:

1. Proteolytic theory
2. Proteolytic chelation theory
3. Acidogenic theory
4. Autoimmune theory

Answer: 3. Acidogenic theory

101. A number of zones seen in dental caries of dentin are:

1. One
2. Two
3. Four
4. Five

Answer: 4. Five

102. Lateral spread of caries is facilitated by:

1. Enamel spindles
2. Dentinoenamel junction
3. Enamel lamellae
4. Striae of retzus

Answer: 2. Dentinoenamel junction

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103. All of the following may cause gingival enlargement except:

1. Vitamin C deficiency
2. Fibromatosis gingivae
3. Monocytic leukemia
4. Desquamative gingivitis

Answer: 4. Desquamative gingivitis

104. Odontoma is:

1. Hamartoma
2. Teratoma
3. Choristoma
4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Hamartoma

105.Self­healing carcinoma refers to:

1. Verrucous xanthoma
2. Keratoacanthoma
3. Nevus
4. Fibroma

Answer: 2. Keratoacanthoma

106. A patient has filmy white opalescence bilaterally on buccal mucosa, the lesion fades on stretching. The most likely diagnosis is:

1. White sponge nevus
2. Leukoplakia
3. Lichen planus
4. Leukoedema

Answer: 4. Leukoedema

107.“Eye raised to heaven” look is a clinical feature of:

1. Marfan’s syndrome
2. Fibrous syndrome
3. Albright’s syndrome
4. Cherubism

Answer: 4. Cherubism

108. The most common gland involved in sialolithiasis is:

1. Parotid gland
2. Submandibular gland
3. Sublingual gland
4. Both (a) and (b)

Answer: 2. Submandibular gland

109. Multiple OKC are found in the following syndrome:

1. Gorlin-Golt syndrome
2. Ectodermal dysplasia
3. Noonan’s syndrome
4. Down’s syndrome

Answer: 1. Gorlin-Golt syndrome

110.Radiographic fiding in pindborg tumor is:

1. Sunburst appearance
2. Onion­Peel appearance
3. Driven­Snow appearance
4. Cherry­Blossom appearance

Answer: 3. Driven­Snow appearance

111. Rodent ulcer refers to:

1. Squamous cell carcinoma
2. Verrucous carcinoma
3. Basal cell carcinoma
4. Both a and b

Answer: 3. Basal cell carcinoma

112.Abtropfung effct is seen in:

1. Junctional nevus
2. Aphthous ulcer
3. Erythema multiforme
4. Pemphigus

Answer: 1. Junctional nevus

113. Private bodies are seen in:

1. Bowen’s disease
2. Leukoplakia
3. Lichen planus
4. OSMF

Answer: 3. Lichen planus

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114. Racquet cell, strap cells and ribbon cells are typically seen in:

1. Neuroblastoma
2. Rhabdomyosarcoma
3. Leiomyosarcoma
4. Ewing’s sarcoma

Answer: 2. Rhabdomyosarcoma

115. Van der Woude syndrome shows all except:

1. Bilateral lip pits
2. Cleft lip
3. Cleft palate
4. Microdontia

Answer: 4. Microdontia

116. Fordyce’s granules are ectopic:

1. Sebaceous glands
2. Sweat glands
3. Lacrimal glands
4. Salivary glands

Answer: 1. Sebaceous glands

117. Hansen’s disease is the another name of:

1. Tuberculosis
2. Leprosy
3. Actinomycosis
4. Diphtheria

Answer: 2. Leprosy

118. In primary stage of syphilis, the lesion is called as:

1. Mucocutaneous patch
2. Gumma
3. Chancre
4. Crust

Answer: 3. Chancre

119. Herpes virus infects all tissues except:

1. Skin
2. Eyes
3. CNS
4. Salivary glands

Answer: 4. Salivary glands

120. Private bodies are seen in:
Radicular cyst
Lichen planus
Pemphigus
Pemphigoid

Answer: 2.Lichen planus

121. Iris lesions are seen in:

1. Psoriasis
2. Erythema multiforme
3. Pemphigus
4. Lupus erythematosus

Answer: 2. Erythema multiforme

122. Abrasion is wearing away of tooth due to:

1. Mechanical forces
2. Chemical
3. Mastication
4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Mechanical forces

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123. Anitschkow cell is seen in:

1. Herpes infection
2. Recurrent aphthous ulcers
3. Tuberculosis
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Recurrent aphthous ulcers

124. Costen’s syndrome has all except:

1. Impairment of hearing
2. Tinnitus
3. Otalgia
4. Blurring of vision

Answer: 2. Tinnitus

125. Parakeratin plugging is seen in:

1. Verrucous carcinoma
2. Liposarcoma
3. Osteosarcoma
4. Fibrosarcoma

Answer: 1. Verrucous carcinoma

126. Jigsaw puzzle or Mosaic pattern of bone is seen in:

1. Cherubism
2. Paget’s disease
3. Fibrous dysplasia
4. Achondroplasia

Answer: 2. Paget’s disease

127. Arcading patterns of rete pegs and rushton bodies are seen in:

1. Radicular cyst
2. Gorlin’s cyst
3. Paradental cyst
4. Nasopalatine cyst

Answer: 1. Radicular cyst

128. Numbness in the palate, or area of looseness in palate are clinical features of:

1. Squamous cell carcinoma
2. Necrotizing sialometaplasia
3. Salivary duct carcinoma
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Necrotizing sialometaplasia

129.Duct-like spaces lined by single cells and rosett pattern seen in:

1. AOT
2. Ameloblastoma
3. Odontogenic fibroma
4. Odontogenic myxoma

Answer: 1. AOT

130.“Café au lait” spots are seen in:

1. Ganglioneuroma
2. Fibroma
3. Rhabdomyoma
4. Neurofiroma

Answer: 4. Neurofiroma

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131. Wickham’s striae are seen in:

1. Leukoplakia
2. Erythroplakia
3. Lichen planus
4. Both a and b

Answer: 3. Lichen planus

132.Most common malignancy in AIDS:

1. Osteosarcoma
2. Fibrosarcoma
3. Ewing’s sarcoma
4. Kaposi’s sarcoma

Answer: 4. Kaposi’s sarcoma

133. Which of the following is an example of non odontogenic cyst:

1. Eruption cyst
2. Nasolabial cyst
3. Primordial cyst
4. Glandular odontogenic cyst

Answer: 2. Nasolabial cyst

134.Reed­Sternberg cells are characteristically seen in:

1. Thalassemia
2. Glandular fever
3. Hansen’s disease
4. Hodgkin’s disease

Answer: 4. Hodgkin’s disease

135. Cyst associated with root apex of a non vital tooth is most likely to be:

1. Odontogenic keratocyst
2. Dentigerous cyst
3. Radicular cyst
4. Glandular odontogenic cyst

Answer: 3. Radicular cyst

136 Microscopic appearance of “swiss cheese” pattrn is seen in:

1. Pleomorphic adenoma
2. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
3. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
4. Acinic cell carcinoma

Answer: 2. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

137. Greatest demineralization is seen in the following zone of enamel caries:

1. Translucent zone
2. Dark zone
3. Body of the lesion
4. Surface zone

Answer: 3. Body of the lesion

138. Mucous extravasation phenomenon most commonly occurs on:

1. Upper lip
2. Lower lip
3. Tongue
4. Buccal mucosa

Answer: 2. Lower lip

139. Bleeding gums can be seen in patient with deficiency of:

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin E
3. Vitamin D
4. Vitamin C

Answer: 4. Vitamin C

140. Clinical finding of “pinkish discoloration” of tooth indicates:

1. Internal resorption
2. External resorption
3. Hypercementosis
4. Tooth ankylosis

Answer: 1. Internal resorption

“Differential applications of high-yield vs low-yield oral pathology topics: Questions answered”

141.“Parakeratin plugging” is the hallmark feature for:

1. Squamous cell carcinoma
2. Basal cell carcinoma
3. Malignant melanoma
4. Verrucous carcinoma

Answer: 4.Verrucous carcinoma

142.The most common tumor of parotid gland is:

1. Pleomorphic adenoma
2. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
3. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
4. Acinic cell carcinoma

Answer: 1. Pleomorphic adenoma

143.Punched-out ulcers on interdental papillae are seen in:

1. ANUG
2. Desquamative gingivitis
3. Pericoronitis
4. Crohn’s disease

Answer: 1. ANUG

144. Suprabasilar split in the epithelium is a feature of:

1. Lichen planus
2. Pemphigus
3. Erythema multiforme
4. Pemphigoid

Answer: 2. Pemphigus

145.Café – au – lait spots can be seen in:

1. McCune Albright Syndrome
2. Neurilemmoma
3. Neurofibromatosis
4. Both a and c

Answer: 4. Both a and c

146. Multiple impacted supernumerary teeth are seen in the following:

1. Gardner syndrome
2. Cowden’s syndrome
3. Klinefelter’s syndrome
4. Peut – Jeghers syndrome

Answer: 1. Gardner syndrome

“Steps to identify types of oral pathology MCQs: Clinical scenarios vs factual recall: Q&A guide”

147.The commonest opportunistic fungal disease of the oral cavity is:

1. Histoplasmosis
2. Mucormycosis
3. Candidiasis
4. Blastomycosis

Answer: 3. Candidiasis

148. Nikolsky’s sign is positive in:

1. Lichen planus
2. Pemphigus vulgaris
3. Systemic sclerosis
4. Lupus erythematosus

Answer: 2. Pemphigus vulgaris

149. Which of the following is not the feature of epithelial dysplasia:

1. Loss of basal cell polarity
2. Nuclear and cellular pleomorphism
3. Individual cell keratinization
4. Koilocytic change

Answer: 4. Koilocytic change

150.Self-healing carcinoma is another name for:

1. Squamous papilloma
2. Keratoacanthoma
3. Verruca vulgaris
4. Squamous cell carcinoma

Answer: 2. Keratoacanthoma

151.“Driven snow” appearance on radiograph is seen in:

1. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
2. Ameloblastoma
3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
4. Squamous odontogenic tumor

Answer: 3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor

152. Which of the following condition can cause difficulty in tooth extraction:

1. Microdontia
2. Dilaceration
3. Macrodontia
4. Anodontia

Answer: 2. Dilaceration

153. Malignant tumor of smooth muscle origin is:

1. Rhabdomyoma
2. Rhabdomyosarcoma
3. Leiomyoma
4. Leiomyosarcoma

Answer: 4. Leiomyosarcoma

154.Ghost cells are seen:

1. Odontogenic keratocyst
2. Dentigerous cyst
3. Radicular cyst
4. Calcifying odontogenic cyst

Answer: 4.Calcifying odontogenic cyst

“Role of image-based questions in oral pathology exams: Questions answered”

Fill In The Blanks

1. Complication of healing of extraction socket is called as ……………

Answer. Dry socket

2. ANUG is caused by …………… microorganisms.

Answer. P. intermedia, Borrelia and Treponema

3. The other name of pindborg tumor is ……………

Answer. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor

4. Papilloma is caused by …………… Virus.

Answer. HPV

5. “Pink tooth” is caused due to ……………

Answer. Internal resorption

6. Dens in dente is called ……………

Answer. Dens invaginatus

7. Syphilis is caused by ……………

Answer. Treponema pallidum

8. Pseudocyst of jaws are ……………

Answer. Solitary bone cyst and aneurysmal bone cyst

9. Kaposi’s sarcoma is tumor of ……………

Answer. Human herpes virus­8

10. Warthin’s tumor is also called as ……………

Answer. Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosis

11. Bence-Jones protein is seen in ……………

Answer. Plasmacytoma

12.Café au lait spots are seen in ……………

Answer. Neurofibroma

13. “Liesgang’s rings” are characteristic are features of……………

Answer. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor

14. Phlegmon is also known as ……………

Answer. Cellulitis

15. Hyaline or rushton bodies is seen in ……………

Answer. Radicular cyst

16. Mulberry molars are seen in ……………

Answer. Syphilis

17. Shell teeth is associated with ……………

Answer. Dentinogenesis imperfecta­ Type III

18. Virus implicated in squamous cell papilloma is ……………

Answer. Human papilloma virus (HPV) 6 and 11

19. Self-healing carcinoma is also known as ……………

Answer. Keratoacanthoma

20. Abtropfung or dropping of effect is seen in ……………

Answer. Junctional nevus and compound nevus

“How do educators design oral pathology MCQs for dental exams? FAQ explained”

21. The chemical disintegration of enamel is referred to as ……………

Answer. Erosion

22. Koplik’s spots are an early intraoral manifestation of ……………

Answer. Measles

23. Tumors of minor salivary glands are more frequently seen in ……………

Answer. Palate

24. A fluid-filled elevated lesion of skin is called as ……………

Answer. Bulla

25. The most common sequel of pulpitis is ……………

Answer. Periapical granuloma

26. Anitschkow cells are found in ……………

Answer. Aphthous ulcers

27. Verocay bodies are the histologic feature of ……………

Answer. Neurilemmoma

28. The term submerged tooth is used for ……………

Answer. Deciduous molar

“Early warning signs of poor performance in oral pathology MCQ exams: Common questions”

29. Reed-Sternberg cells are seen in ……………

Answer. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

30. Examination of lip prints is known as ……………

Answer. Cheiloscopy

31. Cotton wool appearance radiographically is seen in ……………

Answer. Paget’s disease

32. Sunray appearance radiographically is seen in ……………

Answer. Osteosarcoma

33. Wickham striae are characteristic features of ……………

Answer. Lichen planus

34. Reed-Sternberg cells are seen in ……………

Answer. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

35. Codman’s triangle is seen in ……………

Answer. Osteosarcoma

36. Chicken wire pattrn is seen in ……………

Answer. Pemphigus vulgaris

37. Nikolsky’s sign is a characteristic feature of ……………

Answer. Pemphigus vulgaris

38. Hutchinson’s triad is seen in ……………

Answer. Syphilis

39. Ghost teeth appearance radiographically is seen in ……………

Answer. Regional odontodysplasia

40. Parakeratin plugging is seen in ……………

Answer. Verrucous carcinoma

41. Swiss cheese pattern is seen in ……………

Answer. Cylindroma

42. Screw-driven-shaped incisors are seen in ……………

Answer. Syphilis

43. Reed-Sternberg cells are feature of ……………

Answer. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

44. Grinspan syndrome is associated with ……………mucocutaneous lesion

Answer. Lichen planus

45. Soap bubble appearance in X-ray is seen in ……………

Answer. Ameloblastoma, aneurysmal bone cyst, central hemangioma

46. Ghost’s teeth are seen in ……………

Answer. Regional odontodysplasia

47. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis is also called as ……………

Answer. Pulp polyp

48. Most-accepted theory in etiopathogenesis of dental caries is ……………

Answer. Acidogenic theory

“Asymptomatic vs symptomatic effects of outdated question formats: Answered”

49. Nikolsky’s sign is a feature of ……………

Answer. Pemphigus vulgaris

50. Keratin pearls are seen in ……………

Answer. Squamous cell carcinoma

51. Syndrome associated with cherubism ……………

Answer. Noonan syndrome

51. Monroe’s abscess is seen in ……………

Answer. Psoriasis

52. Shell teeth is also called as ……………

Answer. Brandywine type

53. Virus-infected cells are called as ……………

Answer. Koilocytes

54. Candida grows in …………… media.

Answer. Sabouraud’s broth

55. Two lesion where we fid keratin pearls ……………

Answer. Squamous cell carcinoma and pleomorphic adenoma

56. Hairpin cells are seen in ……………

Answer. Radicular cyst

57. Defie neuralgia ……………

Answer. Neuralgia is defied as the pain along the pathway of nerve

58. Other names of botryoid cyst ……………

Answer. Lateral periodontal cyst

59. Subepithelial split is seen in ……………

Answer. Bullous pemphigoid

60. HPV-altered epithelial cells with perinuclear clear spaces and nuclear pyknosis found in squamous papilloma are ……………

Answer. Koilocytes

“Can advanced tools enhance oral pathology MCQ creation? FAQs provided”

61. Scattered macrophages with an abundant clear cytoplasm often containing phagocytic cellular debris, a characteristic histopathological pictures seen in African Jaw Lymphoma is ……………

Answer. Starry Sky appearance

62. Characteristic malignant cells of Hodgkin’s disease are large cells known as ……………

Answer. Reed­Sternberg cells

63. Cells with elongated nuclei containing a linear bar of chromatin with radiating processes of chromatin with extension towards nuclear membrane found in aphthous stomatitis are called as ……………

Answer. Anitschkow cells

64. Softened bone at the base of skull seen in Paget’s disease is called as ……………

Answer. Platybasia

65. Syndrome consisting of a triad of persistant or recurring lip or facial swelling, intermittent seventh (facial) nerve paralysis (Bell’s palsy) and fisured tongue is ……………

Answer. Melkersson­Rosenthal syndrome

66. Herpes simplex infection occurring in figers due to autoinoculation is called as ……………

Answer. Herpetic Whitlow

67. Degenerative cells showing swelling of the nuclei and hyperchromatic staining seen in pemphigus vulgaris is ……………

Answer. Tzanck cells

68. Pronounced hyperextensibility in patients with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome give them appearance called as ……………

Answer. Rubber man

69. Hunter’s glossitis or Moeller’s glossitis is characteristic feature of ……………

Answer. Deficiency of vitamin B12

“Differential applications of single-answer vs multiple-answer MCQs: Q&A”

Viva-Voce Questions For Practical Examination

1. Name the condition in which teeth get united by the cementum.

Answer. Concrescence

2. Name the condition in which in attmpt for the division of a single tooth germ by an invagination which causes incomplete formation of two teeth.

Answer. Gemination

3. Name the condition in which there is sharp bent or curvature present in the root.

Answer. Dilaceration

4. What are the other names of geographic tongue?

Answer. Wandering rash or erythema migrans

5. Name the papillae affected in geographic tongue.

Answer. Filiform papillae

6. Name the condition characterized by heterotrophic collection of sebaceous glands at various sites in oral cavity.

Answer. Fordyce’s granules

7. In hairy tongue which papillae of tongue get hypertrophied?

Answer. Filiform papillae

8. What is another name of dens evaginatus?

Answer. Leong’s premolar

9. Which is the most common supernumerary teeth?

Answer. Mesiodens

10. Which is second most common supernumerary tooth?

Answer. Distomolar

11. By which structure predeciduous teeth are formed of?

Answer. Hornifid epithelial structures

12. During which stage of tooth development, injury occur which result in enamel hypoplasia.

Answer. Formative stage

13. In which condition screw driven-shaped incisors and moon molars are seen?

Answer. Syphilis

14. Which condition consists of ghost teeth?

Answer. Regional odontodysplasia

15. Name the condition in which there is single tooth hypoplasia due to trauma or infection.

Answer. Turner’s hypoplasia

“Steps to cover key topics in oral pathology MCQs: Cysts vs tumors: Q&A guide”

16. Name the teeth which erupt prematurely in fist thirty days of life.

Answer. Neonatal teeth

17. What does ankylosed deciduous tooth known as?

Answer. Submerged teeth

18. Name the condition in which there is presence of heartshaped radiolucency and is bilateral, it is also lined by pseudostratifid ciliated epithelium.

Answer. Nasopalatine duct cyst

19. What is the another name of klestadt cyst?

Answer. Nasolabial cyst

20. What is parulis?

Answer. It is the inflammatory enlargement which is seen at the terminus of fistula or the sinus tract

21. In which condition does Epstein pearls and Bohn’s nodules are seen?

Answer. Palatal cyst of neonate

22. Name the cellular layer which proliferates in papilloma.

Answer. Spinous cell layer

23. Which is the most common benign soft tissue neoplasm of oral cavity?

Answer. Fibroma

24. Name the carcinoma which show no tendency for the metastasis.

Answer. Basal cell carcinoma

25. Name the route by which oral carcinoma metastatize.

Answer. Lymphatic route

26. Name the lymph nodes which commonly involved in metastasis of oral cancer.

Answer. Submaxillary and cervical lymph nodes

27. Name the disease which is known as self-healing carcinoma.

Answer. Keratoacanthoma

28. Name the nevus which is clinically benign but histologically malignant.

Answer. Spindle cell nevus

29. Which nevus show abtropfung or dropping of effct.

Answer. Junctional nevus

30. Which is the site of highest risk in leukoplakia?

Answer. Floor of the mouth

31. Which is the most common precancerous lesion and malignant precancerous lesion?

Answer. Leukoplakia and erythroplakia

32. Which is the most common malignancy in males and females?

Answer. In males it is lung cancer and in females it is breast cancer.

33. Which is the most common malignancy in males and females in India?

Answer. Oral cancer in males and breast cancer in females

34. What is the hallmark of verrucous carcinoma?

Answer. Parakeratin plugging

“Role of histopathology in oral pathology MCQs: Questions answered”

35. What is the another name of lane tumor?

Answer. Spindle cell carcinoma

36. In which lesion epithelial melanocytes are distributed in pagetoid manner?

Answer. Malignant melanoma

37. Name the most common benign soft tissue tumor of oral cavity.

Answer. Fibroma

38. In which disease foam cells are evident?

Answer. Verruciform xanthoma

39. Which is the most common site for occurrence of lymphangioma?

Answer. Tongue

40. Which disease is known as Codman’s tumor?

Answer. Benign chondroblastoma

41. In which disease Codman’s triangle is seen?

Answer. Osteosarcoma

42. Which tumor show starry sky effect on cytoplasm?

Answer. Burkitts lymphoma

43. In which disease Reed-Sternberg cell is seen?

Answer. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

44. In which disease cartwheel or checker pattern histopathologic appearance is seen?

Answer. Multiple myeloma

45. In which disease Antoni A and Antoni B cells are seen?

Answer. Neurilemmoma

46. Name the salivary gland neoplasm in which predilection for men is seen?

Answer. Warthin’s tumor

47. What is the histological similarity between mickulicz disease and Sjogren’s syndrome?

Answer. Epimyoepithelial islands

48. What is the another name of cylindroma.

Answer. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

49. Name the salivary gland neoplasm which spread along perineural spaces.

Answer. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

50. Which is the most common salivary gland neoplasm.

Answer. Pleomorphic adenoma

“How do students differentiate between similar oral pathology conditions in MCQs? FAQ explained”

51. Which is the second most common salivary gland tumor?

Answer. Warthin’s tumor

52. Name the most common malignant salivary gland neoplasm of children.

Answer. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

53. Which is the most common etiology for necrotizing sialometaplasia?

Answer. Ischemia

54. Name the cyst consisting of rushton bodies.

Answer. Radicular cyst

55. Which cyst consists of satellite cysts or daughter cysts?

Answer. Odontogenic keratocyst

56. What do you mean by satellite or daughter cyst?

Answer. They represents the end of folds of lining epithelium of main cytic cavity which are cut in cross section

57. Which tumor is known as pindborg tumor?

Answer. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor

58. In which disease gastric acid decalcification of teeth is present?

Answer. Anorexia nervosa

59. What is the another name of pink tooth of Mummery?

Answer. Internal resorption

60. Which disease is known as Hansen’s disease.

Answer. Leprosy

61. Where does pyogenic granuloma is seen commonly in oral cavity.

Answer. Gingiva

62. In which disease ballooning degeneration and Lipschutzs bodies are seen?

Answer. Herpes

63. Which disease is known as ray fungus?

Answer. Actinomycosis

“Early warning signs of knowledge gaps in oral pathology MCQ topics: Common questions”

64. Which disease is known as Lues?

Answer. Syphilis

65. What is Hutchinson’s triad?

Answer. It is hypoplasia of incisor and molar teeth, eighth nerve deafness and interstitial glossitis

66. Name the cells which are seen in cytologic margin of aphthous ulcer.

Answer. Anitischkow cells

67. Name the virus which causes hand, foot and mouth disease and herpangina.

Answer. Coxsackie virus

68. In which disease Koplik’s spots are seen?

Answer. Measles

69. Which disease shows Henderson Paterson bodies?

Answer. Molluscum contagiosum

70. Name the syndrome with which herpes zoster is associated.

Answer. James Ramsay Hunt syndrome

71. Name the fungal lesion which closely mimics tuberculosis.

Answer. Histoplasmosis

72. Name the most common opportunistic infection of the world.

Answer. Candidiasis

73. Name the type of candidiasis which leads to pain.

Answer. Acute atrophic form

74. Who had given acidogenic theory.

Answer. WD Miller

75. Name the bacteria which cause dental caries.

Answer. S. mutans

76. Name the tooth which is least susceptible to dental caries.

Answer. Mandibular central incisors

77. Name the bacteria which leads to root caries.

Answer. A. viscosus

78. Name the condition in which bacteria circulating in blood leads to pulpal inflammation.

Answer. Anachoretic pulpitis

79. Which type of hypersensitivity is caused by periapical granuloma.

Answer. Delayed hypersensitivity

80. Name the cystwhich develops in maxilla after Calwell Luc operation.

Answer. Surgical ciliated cyst of maxilla

“Asymptomatic vs symptomatic effects of skipping challenging topics: Answered”

81. Name the disease in which pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia and plasma pooling is seen.

Answer. Epulis fisuratum

82. Name the mucocele which occurs in the flor of mouth.

Answer. Ranula

83. In which disease does test tube rete pegs are seen.

Answer. Dilantin sodium-induced gingival hyperplasia

84. Name the compound which causes acrodynia or pink disease.

Answer. Mercury

85. Name the microorganism which leads to dry socket.

Answer. Treponema denticola

86. Deficiency of which ions causes tetany.

Answer. Calcium and magnesium

87. Which disease show punched-out lesions of bone, exophthalmos and diabetes insipidus.

Answer. Hand Schuller Christian Disease

88. Deficiency of which vitamin shows Trummerfeld zone.

Answer. Vitamin C

89. Name the disease in which high predilection for osteomyelitis is seen after dental extraction.

Answer. Osteomyelitis

90. Name the most common complication of Paget’s disease.
Answer. It leads to pathologic fracture

91. Which is the most common site for monostotic fibrous dysplasia.

Answer. Ribs

92. Name the most common cause for the ankylosis of temporomandibular joint.

Answer. Trauma

93. In which disease Hunter glossitis is seen.

Answer. Pernicious anemia

“Can topic-specific quizzes improve oral pathology MCQ accuracy? FAQs provided”

94. Name the constant feature of pernicious anemia.

Answer. Achlorhydria

95. Name the anemia in which there is lack of resistance to infection.

Answer. Aplastic anemia

96. Which type of leukemia is most common in children.

Answer. Acute lymphocytic leukemia

97. Which type of leukemia is most common in elders.

Answer. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

98. Name the microorganisms causing ANUG.

Answer. Borrelia vincentii and fusiform bacilli

99. Name the disease in which saw tooth rete pegs with Civatt bodies are seen.

Answer. Lichen planus

100. Name the disease which show Auspit sign, Monroe’s abscess.

Answer. Psoriasis

101. What is Grinspan syndrome.

Answer. Lichen planus + Diabetes mellitus + Vascular hypertension

102. Corps rods and Grains are seen in which disease.

Answer. Darier’s disease.

103. Name the sign in which there is loss of epithelium on normal rubbing.

Answer. Nikolsky’s sign

104. Name the disease which show suprabasilar split and Tzanck Cells.

Answer. Pemphigus

105. Name the disease which shows histopathological appearance of rosetts of neutrophils which surrounds the lymphocytes.

Answer. Systemic lupus erythematosus

106. Name the disease which show hypermobility of TMJ and and increase tendency to form pulp stones.

Answer. Ehler Danlos syndrome

107. Name the neuralgia which show alarm clock headache with no trigger zone.

Answer. Sphenopalatine neuralgia

“Differential applications of benign vs malignant lesions in MCQs: Q&A”

108. Name the condition in which there is shooting pain with trigger zone in tonsillar fossa.

Answer. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia

109. Name the condition in which there is severe pain which arise after sectioning of peripheral sensory nerve.

Answer. Causalgia

110. Name the disease in which there is sorrowful appearance of patient with histological appearance of lymphorrhage.
Answer. Myasthenia gravis

111. What is melasma.

Answer. It is the condition in which there is pigmentary changes in associated with the pregnancy or taking the contraceptive pills.

112. What do you mean by perimolysis.

Answer. Perimolysis refers to the intrinsic dental erosion of teeth.
This occurs in patients, in whom the gastric acid from stomach comes in contact with the teeth.

“Steps to incorporate AI into analyzing oral pathology MCQ patterns: Questions and answers”

113. What do you mean by ameloglyphics.

Answer. These are tooth print pattern formed by enamel rods end at crown surface of tooth and are recorded by acetate peel technique.

114. Name the solution which preserves the bite marks on apples presented at crime scene.

Answer. Campden solution Or 5% acetic acid in 40% aqueous formaldehyde.