General Surgery Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

General Surgery MCQs

Question 1. Adamantinoma or ameloblastoma may be seen in all except:

1. Odontogenic epithelium
2. Femur Bone
3. Tibia Bone
4. Stalk of pituitary

Answer: 2. Femur Bone

Question 2. The most common tumor in the minor salivary gland, which spreads through neural sheath is:

1.  Acinar cell carcinoma
2. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
3. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
4. Pleomorphic adenoma

Answer: 2. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

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Question 3. In submandibular gland surgery, the nerve least likely to be injured is:

1. Hypoglossal nerve
2. Lingual nerve
3. Inferior alveolar nerve
4. The mandibular branch of the facial nerve

Answer: 3. Inferior alveolar nerve

Question 4. Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by the following:

1. Generalized osteoporosis
2. Osteosclerosis
3. Hypercalcemia
4. Renal calculus

Answer: 2. Osteosclerosis

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Question 5. True about Warthin tumor of a salivary gland is:

1. Malignant neoplasm
2. Rapidly growing tumor
3. Gives a “Hot” pertechnetate scan
4. Gives a “Cold” pertechnetate scan

Answer: 3. Gives a “Hot” pertechnetate scan

Question 6. In fracture, mandible osteosynthesis or rigid fiation is done by all except:

1. Bone grafting
2. Mini plates
3. Leg screws
4. Arch bar

Answer: 1. Bone grafting

Question 7. The cleft lip is best repaired at the age of:

1. 5 months
2. One year of age
3. 6 years to 8 years of age
4. At puberty

Answer: 1. 5 months

Question 8. Sjogren’s syndrome is characterized by all except:

1. Xerostomia
2. Keratoconjunctivitis
3. Rheumatic arthritis
4. Enlargement of salivary gland

Answer: 4. Enlargement of salivary gland

Question 9. The X-ray of the Jaw shows a “Honeycomb” appearance, the diagnosis is:

1. Granulomatous epulis
2. Osteoclastoma
3. Ameloblastoma
4. Dentigerous cyst

Answer: 3. Ameloblastoma

Question 10. The most common cause of thyroiditis is:

1. Riedle’s thyroiditis
2. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
3. Subacute thyroiditis
4. Cervicofacial actinomycosis

Answer: 2. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

Question 11. The skin grafting is not done in infection with:

1. Pseudomonas
2. E. coli
3. β-hemolytic streptococci
4. Staphylococci

Answer: 3. β-hemolytic streptococci

Question 12. The most common presenting complaint of medullary carcinoma of the thyroid is:

1. Diarrhea
2. Dysphagia
3. Flushing
4. Hoarseness of voice

Answer: 1. Diarrhea

Question 13. What is the advantage of chromic catgut over plain catgut suture in deep wounds?

1. Greater strength
2. Greater ease of use
3. Delayed resorption
4. Less tissue reaction

Answer: 4. Less tissue reaction

Question 14. An allograft is the transfer of tissue between:

1. Sister to brother
2. Unrelated donor
3. Same individual
4. Monozygotic twins

Answer: 1. Sister to brother

Question 15. Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by the following:

1. Generalized osteoporosis
2. Hypercalcemia
3. Osteosclerosis
4. Renal stone formation

Answer: 3. Osteosclerosis

Question 16. Ameloblastoma may be seen in all except:

1. Jaws
2. Pituitary stalk
3. Tibia
4. Hip bone

Answer: 4. Hip bone

Question 17. The papillary carcinoma of the thyroid having all except:

1. Most common thyroid cancer
2. Psammoma bodies seen
3. Encapsulated
4. Blood-borne metastasis is common

Answer: 4. Blood-borne metastasis is common

Question 18. In cleft lip operation, all the stitches are removed on:

1. 2nd day
2. 4th to 5th day
3. 10th day
4. 14th day

Answer: 2. 4th to 5th day

Question 19. If a patient presents with neck swelling and respiratory distress a few hours after thyroidectomy, the next management would be:

1. Open immediately
2. Tracheostomy
3. Wait and watch
4. Oxygen by mask

Answer: 2. Tracheostomy

Question 20. In facial injury with voluntary control lost over the tongue,the best emergency treatment to prevent tongue from falling back is by:

1. Definitive treatment
2. Oropharyngeal airway
3. Towel clipping of tongue
4. Deep traction suture of tongue

Answer: 3. Towel clipping of tongue

Question 21. Skin is best:

1. Dressing
2. Cosmetic
3. Layer
4. Cover

Answer: 4. Cover

Question 22. Tissue is best

1. Antibiotic
2. Antiseptic
3. Meat
4. Culture

Answer: 2. Antiseptic

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Question 23. Rh­incompatibility in pregnant women causes:

1. Neonatal jaundice
2. Placenta previa
3. Hydrops fetalis
4. Acute renal failure

Answer: 3. Hydrops fetalis

Question 24. Hemophilia is due to congenital deficiency of:

1. Factor III
2. Factor VII
3. Factor IX
4. Factor VIII

Answer: 3. Factor IX

Question 25. Hepatitis B virus is:

1. DNA virus
2. RNA virus
3. Flavi virus
4. Incomplete RNA virus

Answer: 1. DNA virus

Question 26. The edge of a malignant ulcer is:

1. Raised
2. Undermined
3. Sloping
4. Everted

Answer: 4. Everted

Question 27. Most rapid diagnosis of tuberculosis can be done with:

1. Polymerase chain reaction
2. ZN staining
3. Bacterial culture
4. Tuberculin test

Answer: 2. ZN staining

Question 28. The most suitable antibiotic for gas gangrene is:

1. Cloxacillin
2. Penicillin
3. Gentamicin
4. 3rd generation cephalosporin

Answer: 2. Penicillin

Question 29. Most ancient plastic surgery was performed in

1. Greece
2. Rome
3. Egypt
4. India

Answer: 4. India

Question 30. HIV-1 virus is considerably less infective than Hepatitis-B:

1. True
2. False

Answer: 1. True

Question 31. FNAC is useful in all thyroid carcinomas except:

1. Papillary
2. Follicular
3. Medullary
4. Anaplastic

Answer: 2. Follicular

32. The open methods of reduction and immobilization of fractured body of the mandible are all except:

1. Miniplates
2. Transosseous wiring
3. Lag screws
4. Arch bar

Answer: 2. Transosseous wiring

Question 33. Hormones produced by medullary carcinoma of the thyroid are:

1. Calcitonin
2. Prostaglandins
3. Serotonin
4. All a, b and c
5. None

Answer: 1. Calcitonin

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Question 34. A patient with a fistula and chronic pus discharge from the lower face and mandible is most commonly suffering from:

1. Dental cyst
2. Vincent angina
3. Ludwig angina
4. Actinomycosis

Answer: 4. Actinomycosis

Question 35. Axonotmesis is:

1. Rupture of nerve fibers in an intact sheath
2. Rupture of nerve sheath only
3. Rupture of nerve fibers and nerve sheath
4. Physiological paralysis of nerve fibers

Answer: 3. Rupture of nerve fibers and nerve sheath

Question 36. ‘Tetany’ is caused by all except:

1. Hypoparathyroidism
2. Rickets
3. Osteomalacia
4. Hyperparathyroidism

Answer: 4. Hyperparathyroidism

Question 37. The most common tumor of the minor salivary gland is:

1. Mucoepidermoid
2. Acinic cell carcinoma
3. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
4. Pleomorphic adenocarcinoma

Answer: 1. Mucoepidermoid

Question 38. The most common sites of thyroglossal cysts is:

1. Suprahyoid
2. Subhyoid
3. Floor of mouth
4. At the level of cricoid cartilage

Answer: 2. Subhyoid

Question 39. A common type of cleft lip is:

1. Midline
2. Unilateral
3. Bilateral
4. Cleft lip combined with cleft palate

Answer: 2. Unilateral

Question 40. Immediate management of a patient with multiple fractures and fluid loss includes the infusion:

1. Blood
2. Dextran
3. Normal saline
4. Ringer lactate

Answer: 4. Ringer lactate

Question 41. What is a cognizable medicolegal situation?

1. Fracture
2. Abrasion
3. Ecchymosis

Answer: 1. Fracture

Question 42. The surgical incision heals by:

1. First intension
2. Second intension

Answer: 1. First intension

Question 43. Sulphur granules are seen in the pus of:

1. Carbuncle
2. Abscess
3. Actinomycosis
4. Erysipelas

Answer: 3. Actinomycosis

Question 44. A tourniquet is the best treatment for bleeding venous ulcers in the lower limb:

1. True
2. False

Answer: 2. False

Question 45. Normally, the cyst is diagnosed by eliciting a fluctuation test:

1. True
2. False

Answer: 1. True

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Question 46. The hypertrophied scar usually is the result of healing by:

1. Second intension
2. First intension

Answer: 1. Second intension

Question 47. Hemophilia is transferred genetically by:

1. Autosomes
2. Sex chromosomes
3. Mitochondria
4. Golgi complex

Answer: 2. Sex chromosomes

Question 48. Involvement of lymph nodes by secondaries from cancer is:

1. Stoney hard
2. Soft
3. Firm
4. Fluctuant

Answer: 1. Stoney hard

Question 49. The edge of the tubercular ulcer is:

1. Everted
2. Raised
3. Undermined
4. Sloping

Answer: 3. Undermined

Question 50. Universal blood donor belongs to blood groups:

1. A
2. B
3. AB
4. O

Answer: 4. O

Question 51. Unilateral cleft lip is more common on:

1. Right side
2. Left side
3. Median
4. None of the above

Answer: 2. Left side

Question 52. Which type of thyroid cancer has the best prognosis?

1. Papillary
2. Follicular
3. Medullary
4. Anaplastic

Answer: 1. Papillary

Question 53. The most common form of actinomycosis is:

1. Thoracic
2. Fasciocervical
3. Liver
4. Right iliac fossa

Answer: 2. Fasciocervical

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Question 54. Radiologically, the ‘Honeycomb’ appearance is seen in:

1. Myeloid epulis
2. Granulomatous epulis
3. Ameloblastoma
4. Dentigerous cyst

Answer: 3. Ameloblastoma

Question 55. Skin grafting is contraindicated in which infection:

1. Staphylococcus
2. Pseudomonas
3. Proteus
4. Streptococcus hemolyticus

Answer: 4. Streptococcus hemolyticus

Question 56. The structure preserved in functional block dissection in papillary carcinoma thyroid are all except:
1. Sternomastoid muscle
2. Internal jugular vein
3. Spinal accessory nerve
4. Enlarged lymph nodes

Answer: 2. Internal jugular vein

Question 57. The swelling in the neck moves with deglutition all except:

1. Thyroglossal cyst
2. Subhyoid bursitis
3. Pretracheal lymph nodes
4. Branchial cyst

Answer: 4. Branchial cyst

Question 58. Highly transilluminated, cystic, and compressible swelling in the posterior triangle of the neck is:

1. Cystic hygroma
2. Branchial cyst
3. Thyroglossal cyst
4. Dermoid cyst

Answer: 1. Cystic hygroma

Question 59. Recurrent laryngeal nerve is in close relation or associated with:

1. Superior thyroid artery
2. Inferior thyroid artery
3. Superior thyroid vein
4. Inferior thyroid vein

Answer: 2. Inferior thyroid artery

Question 60. The advantages of vicryl suture material over chromic catgut are all except:

1. Delayed resorption
2. Less tissue reaction
3. Greater strength
4. Cheap than chromic

Answer: 1. Delayed resorption

Question 61. Open methods of treatment of fracture mandible are all except:

1. Miniplates
2. Transosseous wiring
3. Bone plating
4. Arch bar

Answer: 4. Arch bar

Question 62. The cysts containing cholesterol crystals are all except:

1. Periapical cyst
2. Dentigerous cyst
3. Branchial cyst
4. Dermoid cyst

Answer: 1. Periapical cyst

Question 63. A patient had a lacerated untidy wound in the leg and attended the casualty after two hours. The wound should be:

1. Sutured immediately
2. Debrided and sutured immediately
3. Debrided and sutured secondarily
4. Clean and dress only

Answer: 2. Debrided and sutured immediately

Question 64. For an 80­year­old edentulous patient with a midline tumor of lower jaw involving the alveolar margin the treatment of choice is:

1. Hemimandibulectomy
2. Marginal mandibulectomy
3. Commando’s operation
4. Segmental mandibulectomy

Answer: 4. Segmental mandibulectomy

Question 65. Not a feature of De Quervains disease:

1. Autoimmune etiology
2. Increased ESR
3. Tends to regress spontaneously
4. Painful and associated with enlargement of the thyroid

Answer: 1. Autoimmune etiology

Question 66. The highest chances of malignancy in the oral cavity are due to:

1. Leukoplakia
2. Lichen planus
3. Erythroplakia
4. Aphthous ulcers

Answer: 3. Erythroplakia

Question 67. Which of the following causes maximum bleeding?

1. Partial arterial tear
2. Complete arterial tear
3. Artery caught between fractured ends of bone
4. Intimal tear

Answer: 1. Partial arterial tear

Question 68. All are the pulsating swellings except:

1. Plexiform hemangioma
2. Carotid aneurysm
3. Primary thyrotoxicosis
4. Sternomastoid tumors

Answer: 4. Sternomastoid tumors

Question 69. Early multiple painful ulcers on the tongue are seen in all except:

1. Aphthous ulcers
2. Carcinomatous ulcer
3. Tubercular
4. Herpes

Answer: 2. Carcinomatous ulcer

Question 70. Incisional or open biopsy should not be taken from all except:

1. Malignant melanoma
2. Parotid gland
3. Tongue and cheek
4. Thyroid gland

Answer: 3. Tongue and cheek

Question 71. Admantinoma or ameloblastoma may be seen in all except:

1. Odontogenic epithelium
2. Femur bone
3. Tibia bone
4. Stalk of pituitary

Answer: 4. Stalk of pituitary

Question 72. The X-ray of the jaw shows a ‘honeycomb’ appearance:

1. Granulomatous epulis
2. Osteoclastoma
3. Ameloblastoma
4. Dentigerous cyst

Answer: 3. Ameloblastoma

Question 73. In fracture mandible osteosynthesis or rigid fiation is done by all except:

1. Bone grafting
2. Miniplates
3. Leg screw
4. Arch bar

Answer: 1. Bone grafting

Question 74. The most common sites of thyroglossal cysts are:

1. Suprahyoid
2. Subhyoid
3. The floor of the mouth
4. At the level of cricoids cartilage

Answer: 2. Subhyoid

Question 75. The papillary carcinoma thyroid has all except:

1. Most common thyroid cancer
2. Psammoma bodies are seen
3. Encapsulated
4. Blood-borne metastasis is common

Answer: 4. Blood-borne metastasis is common

Question 76. In cleft lip operation all stitches after the operation are removed on:

1. 3rd day
2. 4th to 5th day
3. 10th day
4. 14th day

Answer: 2. 4th to 5th day

Question 77. A 14­ year ­old child presented with progressive cervical lymph node enlargement since 3 month. The diagnosis can be achieved by:

1.  X-ray of soft tissues of the neck
2. CBP ESR
3. Lymph node biopsy
4. CT scan of the neck

Answer: 3. Lymph node biopsy

Question 78. Structure preserved in modified radical neck dissection in:

1. Internal jugular vein
2. Sternomastoid muscle
3. XI nerve
4. X nerve

Answer: 3. XI nerve

Question 79. The advantages of vicryl suture material over chromic catgut are all except:

1. Delayed resorption
2. Less tissue reaction
3. Greater strength
4. Cheaper than chromic

Answer: 1. Delayed resorption

Question 80. The swelling in the neck moves with deglutition are all except:

1. Thyroglossal cyst
2. Subhyoid bursa
3. Pretracheal lymph nodes
4. Branchial cyst

Answer: 3. Pretracheal lymph nodes

Question 81. The hand of the surgeon can be rendered aseptic by washing:

1. True
2. False

Answer: 2. False

Question 82. Biopsy can be taken with a needle:

1. True
2. False

Answer: 1. True

Question 83. Abscess should always be sutured closed after drainage:

1. True
2. False

Answer: 1. True

Question 84. Non-absorbable sutures should not suture skin:

1. True
2. False

Answer: 2. False

Question 85. Heat sensitive surgical items can be best sterilized in a well-equipped OT by:

1. Formalin chambers
2. 2% glutaraldehyde
3. Ethylene oxide
4. Ionizing radiation

Answer: 3. Ethylene oxide

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Question 86. One of the following is an example of painless midline neck swelling:

1. Branchial cyst
2. Thyroglossal cyst
3. Cystic hygroma
4. Carotid body tumor

Answer: 2. Thyroglossal cyst

Question 87. Jaw tumors associated with unerupted teeth are:

1. Dental cyst
2. Dentigerous cyst
3. Admantinoma
4. Giant cell granuloma

Answer: 2. Dentigerous cyst

Question 88. Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by the following except:

1. Generalized osteoporosis
2. Osteosclerosis
3. Hypercalcemia
4. Renal calculus

Answer: 2. Osteosclerosis

Question 89. The cleft lip is repaired at the age of:

1. 5 months
2. 1 year ago
3. 6–8 years
4. At puberty

Answer: 1. 5 months

Question x90. Most common cause of thyroiditis is:

1. Riedel’s thyroiditis
2. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
3. Subacute thyroiditis
4. Viral thyroiditis

Answer: 2. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

Question 91. FNAC is useful in all thyroid carcinoma except:

1. Papillary
2. Follicular
3. Medullary
4. Anaplastic

Answer: 2. Follicular

Question 92. Immediate management of patients with multiple fractures and loss of blood with shock is the infusion of:

1. Dextrosaline
2. Dextran
3. Blood
4. Ringer’s lactate

Answer: 4. Ringer’s lactate

Question 93. Bone metastasis is common in which type of thyroid cancer:

1. Medullary
2. Follicular
3. Papillary
4. Anaplastic

Answer: 3. Papillary

Question 94. The most common type of cleft lip is:

1. Unilateral
2. Bilateral
3. Midline

Answer: 2. Bilateral

Question 95. A patient has wide eyes, nervousness, raised systolic BP, and weight loss. The most probable diagnosis is:

1. Hypothyroidism
2. Hyperthyroidism
3. Hyperparathyroidism
4. Hypoparathyroidism

Answer: 2. Hyperthyroidism

Question 96. Collar stud abscess occurs in:

1. Cervical TB lymphadenitis
2. Peritonsillar abscess
3. Pyogenic lymphadenitis
4. Retropharyngeal abscess

Answer: 1. Cervical TB lymphadenitis

Question 97. In long surgical procedures intubation method:

1. Nasotracheal tube with cuff
2. LMANasotracheal tube with cuff
3. Endotracheal tube

Answer: 4. Endotracheal tube

Question 98. The knife used for harvesting split-thickness skin graft is:

1. Husson’s knife
2. Bard-Parker knife
3. Humbly’s knife
4. Foley’s knife

Answer: 3. Humbly’s knife

Question 99. Rapid infusion of blood causes:

1. Acute left heart failure
2. Pulmonary edema
3. Ankle edema
4. Respiratory distress

Answer: 2. Pulmonary edema

Question 100. The best vein for total parenteral nutrition is:

1. Subclavian vein
2. Femoral
3. Brachial vein
4. Saphenous

Answer: 1. Subclavian vein

Question 101. In the blood bank platelets are stored at:

1. 180C for 1 year
2. 2 to 40C for 35 days
3. 20 to 240C for 3 to 5 days
4. 20 to 250C for 35 days

Answer: 3. 20 to 240C for 3 to 5 days

Question 102. The best dressing for open wounds is:

Skin

Amnion

Opsite

Tulle grass

Answer: 1. Skin

Question 103. Reactionary hemorrhage occurs:

1. Within 24 hours of surgery
2. After 48 hours of surgery
3. After 72 hours of surgery
4. After 7 to 14 days of surgery

Answer: 1. Within 24 hours of surgery

Question 104. The treatment of choice for stage I cancer larynx:

1. Radical surgery
2. Chemotherapy
3. Radiotherapy
4. Surgery followed by radiotherapy

Answer: 3. Radiotherapy

Question 105. In an emergency tracheostomy incision is:

1. Vertical
2. Oblique
3. Horizontal
4. Paramedian

Answer: 3. Horizontal

Question 106. Punched out edge is characteristic of ulcer:

1. Tuberculosis
2. Rodent ulcer
3. Syphilitic
4. Non – specific

Answer: 3. Syphilitic

Question 107. Loss of differentiation of tumor cells is called as:

1. Metaplasia
2. Dysplasia
3. Anaplasia
4. Hyperplasia

Answer: 3. Anaplasia

Question 108. The muscle which is resected in classical neck dissection is:

1. Sternohyoid
2. Sternomastoid
3. Sternothyroid
4. Sternocricoid

Answer: 2. Sternomastoid

Question 109. Painless ulcer of the tongue is due to:

1. Dysplasia
2. Syphilis
3. Tuberculosis
4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Dysplasia

Question 110. A patient having a tumor of the maxillary sinus manifests with excessive rolling tears from his eye, likely due to obstruction  of:

1. Nasolacrimal duct
2. Conjunctival sac
3. Lacrimal gland
4. None of the above

Answer: 1. Nasolacrimal duct

Question 111. Basal cell carcinomas:

1. Usually metastasize to regional lymph nodes
2. Common on the face and neck
3. Common in females
4. Radioresistant

Answer: 2. Common on the face and neck

Question 112. All the following are congenital cysts except:

1. External angular dermoid cyst
2. Sebaceous cyst
3. Branchial cyst
4. Thyroglossal cyst

Answer: 2. Sebaceous cyst

Question 113. Ranula is a condition that occurs in:

1. Preauricular area
2. Nasolabial angle
3. Medial angle of orbit
4. Floor of the mouth

Answer: 4. Floor of the mouth

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Question 114. Commonest premalignant lesion of oral cancer:

1. Leukoplakia
2. Syphilitic ulcer
3. Apthous ulcer
4. Erythroplakia

Answer: 1. Leukoplakia

Question 115. Undermined edge is the characteristic of:

1. Rodent
2. Syphilitic
3. Tuberculosis
4. Squamous cell carcinoma

Answer: 3. Tuberculosis

Question 116. The duct of the parotid gland is known as:

1. Stenson’s duct
2. Wharton’s duct
3. Nasolacrimal duct
4. Bartholin’s duct

Answer: 1. Stenson’s duct

Question 117. The largest number of lymph nodes are present in which area:

1. Axilla
2. Groin
3. Neck
4. Abdomen

Answer: 3. Neck

Question 118. Marjolin’s ulcer is:

1. Wet gangrene
2. Dry gangrene
3. Premalignant
4. Malignant

Answer: 4. Malignant

Question 119. Which of the following is congenital:

1. Sebaceous cyst
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Cystic hygroma
4. Vincent’s angina

Answer: 3. Cystic hygroma

Question 120. Bell’s palsy occurs due to injury to:

1. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
2. Facial nerve
3. Trigeminal nerve
4. Ulnar nerve

Answer: 2. Facial nerve

Question 121. The most common cyst for thyroglossal cyst is:

1. Suprahyoid
2. Subhyoid
3. Level of cricoids
4. Floor of mouth

Answer: 2. Subhyoid

Question 122. Which neck swelling moves with swallowing:

1. Submandibular cyst
2. Thyroid cyst
3. Supraclavicular lymph node
4. Sternomastoid tumor

Answer: 2. Thyroid cyst

Question 123. All are true about cystic hygroma except:

1. Pulsatile
2. May cause respiratory obstruction
3. Common in neck
4. Brilliant translucent

Answer: 1. Pulsatile

Question 124. In management of thyroglossal cysts:

1. The central portion of the hyoid excised
2. Sternothyroid muscle dissected
3. Isthmusectomy
4. Strap muscles excised

Answer: 1. Central portion of hyoid excised

Question 125. FNAC is useful in all the following tumors of the thyroid except:

1. Papillary carcinoma
2. Anaplastic carcinoma
3. Thyroiditis
4. Follicular carcinoma

Answer: 4. Follicular carcinoma

Question 126. Everted edge is characteristic of………….ulcer:

1. TB
2. Malignant
3. Syphilitic
4. Healing

Answer: 2. Malignant

Question 127. The most common histological type of thyroid carcinoma is:

1. Medullary type
2. Follicular type
3. Papillary type
4. Anaplastic type

Answer: 3. Papillary type

Question 128. There was a sudden increase in the size of thyroid swelling along with pain. Most likely cause is:

1. Malignant change
2. Nodular goiter
3. Hemorrhage within the thyroid cyst
4. Colloid goiter

Answer: 1. Malignant change

Question 129. The best dressing for open wounds is:

1. Skin
2. Amnion
3. Opsite
4. Tulle grass

Answer: 1. Skin

Question 130. Cystic compressible swelling in the posterior triangle of the neck which is translucent is:

1. Cystic hygroma
2. Branchial cyst
3. Thyroglossal cyst
4. Dermoid cyst

Answer: 1. Cystic hygroma

Question 131. Sistrunk’s operation is done in:

1. Parotid tumor
2. Thyroglossal file
3. Branchial cyst
4. Cystic hygroma

Answer: 2. Thyroglossal file

Question 132. Complications of total thyroidectomy include all except:

1. Airway obstruction
2. Hoarseness
3. Hemorrhage
4. Hypercalcemia

Answer: 2. Hoarseness

Question 133. Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by the following except:

1. Generalized osteoporosis
2. Renal calculi
3. Hypercalcemia
4. Osteosclerosis

Answer: 4. Osteosclerosis

Question 134. After thyroidectomy patient developed stridor within two hours. All are likely cause of stridor except:

1. Hypocalcemia
2. Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
3. Laryngomalacia
4. Wound hematoma

Answer: 1. Hypocalcemia

Fill In The Blanks

1. Duct of parotid gland is known as ……………….
Answer. Stensen’s duct

2. Duct of submandibular gland is known as ……………….
Answer. Wharton’s duct

3. Branches of facial nerve are (any three) …………….,…………………. And ……………….
Answer. Temporal, zygomatic and buccal

4. Two premalignant lesions are ………………. and……………….
Answer. Leukoplakia and erythroplakia

5. The most Common site of thyroglossal cyst is……………….
Answer. Subhyoid

6. FNAC cannot distinguish between a benign …………….and ………………. carcinoma of thyroid.
Answer. Follicular adenoma and follicular

7. The triad of thyroid swelling (Goiter), thyrotoxicosis and exopthalmosis is seen in ……………….
Answer. Grave’s disease

8. The swelling which moves on deglutition and also a protrusion of tongue is ……………….
Answer. Thyroglossal cyst

9. Infection in flor of mouth along with inflmmatory swelling in the neck is called as ……………….
Answer. Ludwig’s angina

10. The most commonly used local anesthetic agent is ……………….
Answer. Lignocaine

11. The term ‘Ubiquitous tumor’ is usually referred to ……………….
Answer. Fibrous tumor

12. The line of demarcation is usually seen between a living zone and dead zone is ……………….
Answer. Gangrene

13. Wash leather slough appearance of flor of ulcer is seen in ………………. ulcer.
Answer. Syphilitic

14. The abbreviation FNAC stands for ……………….
Answer. Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology

15. CSF rhinorrhea is seen in ………………. fossa fractures.
Answer. Anterior

16. A patient with multiple discharging sinuses along with faciocervical involvement is most probably suffrin from ……………….
Answer. Cervicofacial actinomycosis

17. The organ most sensitive to hypovolemic shock is ……………….
Answer. Brain, heart and lung

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18. Mandible is most commonly fractured at ……………….
Answer. Condyles

19. Undermined edge is seen in ………………. ulcer.
Answer. Tuberculous ulcer

20. Submandibular gland lies on ………………. muscle.
Answer. Hyoglossus

21. The most commonly used absorbable suture material for closure of intra­oral wound is ……………….
Answer. Catgut

22. The most common site of enlargement of lymph nodes in Hodgkin’s lymphoma is ……………….
Answer. Cervical region

23. The nerve most likely to get injured in parotid gland surgery is ……………….
Answer. Facial nerve

24. Father of Antiseptic surgery is ……………….
Answer. Joseph Lister

25. Commonest site for carcinoma tongue is ……………….
Answer. Anterior two third part

26. The most common indication for doing tracheostomy is ……………….
Answer. In head, neck and facial injuries

27. Father of Plastic Surgery is ……………….
Answer. Sir Harold Gillies

28. True or False: Antisepsis is better than asepsis ……………….
Answer. False

29. Most common method of instrument sterilization is ……………….
Answer. Autoclave

30. True/False: Cancrum oris is often associated with malnutrition
Answer. True

31. Tissue is best antiseptic. Yes or No
Answer. Yes

32. Metabolism of Ca2+ and PO4­ is regulated by…………………….. hormone
Answer. Parathyroid

33. Biopsy and histopathological examination achieves fial diagnosis of a lump. True/False
Answer. True

34. Medullary thyroid cancer can cause diarrhea. True/False
Answer. True

35. Cacinomatous masses are often hard. True/False
Answer. True

36. Most common salivary gland tumor is ……………….
Answer. Pleomorphic adenoma

37. Universal blood donor group is ………………. and universal blood recipient group is ……………….
Answer. O negative, AB positive

38. Most common bacteria involved in abscess formation is ……………….
Answer. Staphylococcus aureus

39. The diffrence between sinus and fitula is …………
Answer. Fistula a pathway that leads from an internal cavity or organ to the surface of the body. A sinus tract is an abnormal channel that originates or ends in one opening.

40. Consistency of a malignant tumor on palpation is ……………….
Answer. Hard

41. Catgut is manufactured from ……………….
Answer. Submucosa of jejunum of sheep

42. Most commonly employed method of sterilization in OT is ……………….
Answer. UV radiation or formaldehyde

43. Edges of malignant ulcer is ……………….
Answer. Everted

44. ‘Slipping sign’ is observed in ……………….
Answer. Lipoma

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45. A line of demarcation is usually seen between living and dead zone in ……………….
Answer. Gangrene

46. ………………. discovered germ theory of diseases.
Answer. Louis Pasteur

47. ………………. performed fist rhinoplasty.
Answer. Joseph Constantine Carpue

48. ………………. pioneered aseptic surgery
Answer. Joseph Lister

49. Rodent ulcer edge is……………….
Answer. Beaded

50. The fist sign in hypovolemic shock is………………. in pulse.
Answer. Increase

51. FNAC achieves bettr diagnosis than biopsy. (True or false)
Answer. False

52. Cancrum oris is generally associated with malnutrition.(True or false)
Answer. True

53. Tetanus has both tonic and clonic convulsions. (True or false)
Answer. True

54. Metastatic lymph nodes have ………………. consistency.
Answer. Stony hard

55. Aphthous ulcers are painful and multiple. (True or false)
Answer. True

56. Primary healing achieves bettr function than secondary healing. (True or false)
Answer. True

57. Skin grafting can spoil the cosmetic appearance. (True or false)
Answer. True

58. Carbuncles are seen commonly in nondiabetics. (Trueor false)
Answer. False

59. Mothers are carriers and fathers are suffrer in …………
Answer. Hemophilia

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60. Universal tumor is the name given to …………
Answer. Lipoma

61. Neurotmesis involves rupture of both………………. and ……………….
Answer. Neuron sheath and axons

62. Line of demarcation is the feature of ……………….gangrene
Answer. Wet

63. Discoverer of system of human blood groups …………
Answer. Landsteiner

64. Edge of tubercular ulcers is……………….
Answer. Undermined

65. Consistency of metastatic lymph nodes is …………
Answer. Hard

66. Plastic surgery was invented in …………….(country).
Answer. India

67. Venous bleeding is ……………. in color and flws……………….
Answer. Dark in color and flws continuously

68. In lymphoma lymph nodes are ………………. in consist­ency.
Answer. Rubbery

69. Sharp instruments should not be sterilize by ……………….
Answer. Boiling

70. ……………… suffr from hemophilia while ………………transmit it.
Answer. Males suffr from hemophilia while females transmit it

71. Calcium and phosphate in blood and bones are regulated by ……………….
Answer. Calcitonin

72. …………………. is the most common site for keloid.
Answer. Nape of the Neck

73. …………………..is known as hydrocele of neck.
Answer. Serous cyst

74. Duct of parotid gland is known as……………..
Answer. Stensön’s duct

75. Branches of facial nerve are …………….. and………….. (any two).
Answer. Temporal and mandibular

76 Hilto n method is used for the treatment of ………………….
Answer. Abscess

77. Boil is also called as furuncle. True/False
Answer. True

78. Clean­incised surgical wound is healed by primary intension. True/False
Answer. True

79. Cold abscess is caused by tuberculosis. True/False
Answer. True

80. Abscess of peritonsillar space is called as……………….
Answer. Quinsy

81. Cystic hygroma is a brilliantly transilluminant swelling.
True/False
Answer. True

82. Edge of squamous cell carcinoma is…………………
Answer. Everted

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83 Repair of cleft lip should be done at the age of …………………
Answer. 3 to 6 months

84. Cellulitis is commonly caused by the microorganism …………………
Answer. Streptococcus pyogenes

85. Hemophilia is caused by defiiency of…………….
Answer. Factor VIII

86. Tuberculous ulcer has a punched out edge. True/False
Answer. False

88. Thyroglossal cyst moves on deglutition. True/False
Answer. True

89. Consistency of tuberculous lymph node is hard. True/False
Answer. False

90. Granulomatous epulis is……………….in consistency.
Answer. Soft

91. 5 cardinal signs of inflmmation…………….
Answer. Rubor, Calor, Tumor, Dolor, Functio laesa

92. Gas gangrene is caused by……………………(Name of organism)
Answer. Clostridium perfringens

93. ……………..cranial nerves are affcted in plexiform neurofiromatosis.
Answer. 5th, 9th and 10th

94. Punched out edges are seen in………………….ulcer.
Answer. Syphilitic

95. Contusion is a type of closed wound. (True/False)
Answer. True

96. Keratocanthoma arising from………………
Answer. Pilosebaceous glands

97. Ranula is a mucus retention cyst……………..(True/False)
Answer. True

98. In autologous transfusion, patient’s own blood is used ……………….(True/False)
Answer. True

99. Crushed wounds are closed after debridement. True/False
Answer. False

100. PMMC flp is supplied by…………………
Answer. Thoracoacromial artery and its venae comitantes

Viva-Voce Questions For Practical Examination

1. What is an abscess?
Answer. It is a cavity which is filed with pus and is lined by a pyogenic membrane.

2. What is pyemic abscess?
Answer. In this, multiple abscesses are formed from the infected emboli in pyemia.

3. What is pyemia?
Answer. It is the condition where there is formation of secondary foci of suppuration in various body parts.

4. What is bacteremia?
Answer. It is the condition where the bacteria circulate in blood stream.

5. What is septicaemia?
Answer. It is the condition where multiple clinical manifestations arise as toxins are liberated by the bacteria in the blood stream.

6. What is toxemia?
Answer. It is the condition where toxins either derived from bacteria or from chemical circulate in the bloodstream.

7. What is the another name of gas gangrene?
Answer. Clostridial myonecrosis

8. Gas gangrene comes under which type of gangrene?
Answer. Moist gangrene

9. What is the most characteristic feature of gas gangrene?
Answer. There is presence of profuse discharge of brown, foul smelling flid in between sutures and crepitus is also present.

10. Name various organisms which leads to gas gangrene.
Answer. Clostridium welchii, Clostridium septicum, Clostridium histolyticum, Clostridium oedematiens

11. Name the exotoxins released by Clostridium tetani?
Answer. Tetanospasmin and Tetanolysin

“General Surgery Mcq Questions And Answers”

12. How much is the incubation period of tetanus.
Answer. It is from 3 days to 3 weeks.

13. What is Tetanus neonatorum?
Answer. It is the contamination ofthe cut surface ofumbilical cord of neonate which causes spasm of respiratory muscles.

14. What is latent tetanus?
Answer. At times when wound are ignored Clostridium tetani rest in them for months and years but when suitable conditions come the bacteria multiply and tetanus develops.

15. Which is the earliest symptom of tetanus?
Answer. Trismus

16. What do you mean by risus sardonicus.
Answer. It is the anxious expression of the patient suffring from the tetanus.

17. Which is the most common form of actinomycosis?
Answer. Cervicofacial actinomycosis

18. In which disease, Leonine facies are seen.
Answer. Lepromatous leprosy

19. Name the peripheral nerve which is commonly affcted in leprosy.
Answer. Ulnar nerve

20. What is carbuncle.
Answer. Carbuncle is the infective gangrene of skin and subcutaneous tissue.

21. What is cellulitis?
Answer. It is the condition in which there is nonsuppurative spreading inflmmation of subcutaneous and fascial planes.

22. Name the microorganism which leads to cellulitis.
Answer. Streptococcus pyogenes

23. What is erysipelas?
Answer. It is the spreading inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues due to the infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.

24. Which is the characteristic sign of erysipelas?
Answer. Milian’s ear sign.

25. Defie cyst.
Answer. A pathological cavity having flid, semiflid or gaseous contents and which is not created by accumulation of pus.

26. What is a fracture?
Answer. It is the loss of continuity of bone.

27. Name the fracture occurring in the children.
Answer. Greenstick fracture

28. What is callus?
Answer. It is the new bone formed at the site of fracture.

29. What is neuropraxia?
Answer. It is the temporary physiological paralysis of nerve conduction.

30. What is axonotmesis?
Answer. It is the division ofnerve fiers or axons with intact nerve sheath.

31. What is neurotmesis?
Answer. In this, there is complete division of nerve fiers with sheath occurs.

32. What is an ulcer?
Answer. It is the break in continuity of the epithelium.

33. Name the parts of an ulcer.
Answer. Edge, margin, flor and base.

34. Which disease shows rolled out ulcer?
Answer. Squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma

35. Name the disease which consists of undermined ulcer.
Answer. Tuberculosis

36. What is cleft palate?
Answer. Cleft palate occur due to defect in fusion of lines between premaxilla and palatine processes of maxilla one on each side.

37. What is cleft lip?
Answer. Cleft lip occurs due to defect in fusion of median nasal process along with maxillary process.

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38. Name the surgical treatment which is used for unilateral cleft lip repair.
Answer. Millard advancement flp

39. At what age cleft lip repair is done?
Answer. Between 3 to 6 months

40. What is rule of ten.
Answer. When baby is of 10 lbs weight, 10 week old and has 10 gm% of hemoglobin cleft lip repair is done.

41. Name the prosthetic device which covers palatal defects in patients having cleft palate.
Answer. Obturator

42. At what age cleft palate repair has to be done.
Answer. Between 12 to 15 months of age.

43. Name the classifiation which is represented symbolically as Y for cleft lip and cleft palate.
Answer. Kernahan classifiation

44. Which is the tumor known as universal tumor or ubiquitous tumor?
Answer. Lipoma

45. Which is the most common site of carcinoma of lip?
Answer. Vermilion border of lip

46. Name the carcinoma which does not metastatize.
Answer. Basal cell carcinoma

47. Which is the most common site for occurrence of carcinoma of tongue?
Answer. Lateral border of tongue

48. What is commando’s operation?
Answer. In this, there is hemiglossectomy with the block dissection of the lymph nodes.

49. Bedsore represents which type of an ulcer.
Answer. Trophic ulcer.

50. Which condition is known as quinsy?
Answer. Peritonsillar abscess

51. How are the lymph nodes in oral carcinoma?
Answer. Hard and fied lymph nodes

52. How are the lymph nodes in Hodgkin’s lymphoma?
Answer. Rubbery and elastic

53. How is the edge of ulcer in syphilis and aphthous ulcer.
Answer. Punched out

54. Name type of ameloblastoma which has maximum chances of turning into malignancy.
Answer. Granular cell ameloblastoma

55. Name the disease in which tracheostomy is mandatory.
Answer. Ludwig’s angina

56. While performing tracheostomy, which is the site of entrance inside the trachea.
Answer. Second and third tracheal ring is the site of entrance

57. Name the disease in which Trotter’s triad is seen.
Answer. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

58. Name the most common complication which arises after doing the tracheal intubation.
Answer. Sore throat is the most common complication.

59. Which is the major advantage of tracheostomy?
Answer. The procedure increases the dead space upto 50%.

“Common General Surgery Exam Questions”

60. What is the another name of Ringer’s lactate solution?
Answer. Hartmann’s solution.

61. At how much temperature does the blood is stored in the blood bank.
Answer. 4°C ± 2°C

62. How much is the shelf life of stored blood in blood banks.
Answer. 3 weeks

63. At how much temperature, does whole blood is stored in the blood bank.
Answer. 4 to 8°C

64. At what temperature does fresh frozen plasma is stored.
Answer. –40°C to –50°C

65. Name the method which is commonly used to stop the bleeding.
Answer. Applying the pressure over the injured area.

66. In how much time after the surgery reactionary hemorrhage occur.
Answer. In 24 hours of surgery.

67. Name the derivatives of plasma.
Answer. Plasma, platelet rich plasma, fibrinogen, albumin,cryoprecipitate.

68. What are the synthetically prepared solutions?
Answer. Fluorocarbons, gelatin, dextran.

69. How much is the blood transfusion rate?
Answer. It is 1 unit for 4 to 6 hours

70. Name the solution which is given to the patient who get burn.
Answer. Human albumin 4.5%

71. Which is the most common cause of the death in burn patient.
Answer. Oligemic shock

72. Name some of the topical agents used in cases of burn.
Answer. Silver nitrate, silver sulphadiazine, cerium nitrate

73. What are plasma expanders?
Answer. They are the high molecular weight substances which exert colloidal osmotic pressure and when they are infused intravenously, they retain flid in the vascular compartment, e.g. Dextran and human albumin

74. What is shock?
Answer. Shock is a state of poor perfusion with impaired cellular metabolism manifesting with severe pathophysiological abnormalities. It is due to circulatory collapse and tissue hypoxia.

75. Which type of graft is given in deep skin burns?
Answer. Split thickness graft.

76. What is an allograft?
Answer. It is the graft which is given from individual of same species.

77. What is a heterograft?
Answer. It is the graft taken from one specie to another species.

78. What is keloid?
Answer. Keloid is the defect in maturation and stabilization of collage firils. In this normal collagen bundles are absent.

79. What is Buerger’s disease?
Answer. Buerger’s disease is the inflmmation and thrombosis in small and medium-sized blood vessels, typically in the legs and leading to gangrene. It has been associated with smoking

“Important Topics In General Surgery Mcqs”

80. Name the most common ulcer which occur in the leg.
Answer. Venous ulcer

81. Name the most common cause which leads to hypothyroidism.
Answer. Autoimmune thyroiditis

82. Name the cyst which moves while protruding the tongue.
Answer. Thyroglossal cyst

83. Where is thyroglossal cyst located?
Answer. Just near to the hyoid bone

84. Name the thyroid malignancy which occur most commonly.
Answer. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid.

85. What is ranula?
Answer. It is the cystic swelling which is present at the flor of mouth and is the retention cyst of sublingual gland

86. Name the salivary gland in which there is maximum chances of formation of stones.
Answer. Submandibular salivary gland.

87. What is the duct of parotid gland?
Answer. Stensen’s duct

88. What is the duct of submandibular duct known as.
Answer. Wharton’s duct

89. Name the most common parotid gland tumor.
Answer. Pleomorphic adenoma

90. What is an adenoma?
Answer. All the benign tumors which arises from the glandular epithelium are known as adenomas.

91. Where is pleomorphic adenoma located in parotid gland?
Answer. At the tail of parotid gland

92. Name the salivary gland tumor which gets spread surrounding the nerves.
Answer. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

93. What is the feature in diagnosis except biopsy which gives conformational diagnosis of Warthin’s tumor in comparison to other salivary gland tumors.
Answer. Warthin’s tumor shows hot spot in Scintiscan while other salivary tumors show cold spot.

94. Name the nerve which cannot get preserved, while doing the parotid surgery.
Answer. Facial nerve

95. Name the tumors which metastasize to the parotid gland.
Answer. Malignant melanoma and epidermoid carcinoma of skin

96. What is Sjögren’s syndrome?
Answer. It is the triad of xerostomia, Keratoconjunctivitis sicca and rheumatoid arthritis.

97. Name the route by which papillary carcinoma of thyroid spread and follicular carcinoma of thyroid spread.
Answer. Papillary carcinoma spread via lymphatic route while follicular carcinoma spreads via hematogenous route.

98. What is thyroid storm?
Answer. It is the thyrotoxic reaction that occurs under 3–4 days after thyroid surgery. This occur, if the thyrotoxic patient has not been brought down to euthyroid state before the thyroid surgery.

99. What is patey’s operation?
Answer. It is the superfiial parotidectomy

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100. What is goiter.
Answer. Goiter is the enlargement of the thyroid gland.

101. Name the goiter which has maximum chances of undergoing malignancy.
Answer. Nodular goiter

102. Name some of the goitrogens.
Answer. Cabbage, cauliflwer, turnip, kale, sprouts. Antithyoid drugs, thiocyanate, etc.

103. In bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis, what is the life­saving measure?
Answer. Immediate tracheostomy.